onthicaptoc.com
PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
HUYỆN NGA SƠN
ĐỀ GIAO LƯU
ĐỀ GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 8
NĂM HỌC: 2024- 2025
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh
Ngày thi: 7 tháng 11 năm 2024
Thời gian: 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Đề thi gồm 05 trang)
PART A: LISTENING (15 pts)
Part 1: Courtney is describing her recent trip. Are these statements true or false? (5 pts)
True
False
1. She went to New York by herself.
2. She had been to New York before.
3. She thought New York would be dangerous.
4. They ate ethnic food.
5. She thought New York was very expensive.
Part 2: You are going to listen to a conversation with a woman who wants to join an international social club. Listen and complete the form. (5 pts)
International
Social Club
Application form
Name: Jenny Foo
Age: 21
Nationality: (6) …………………..……
Address: (7) ………………………..…, Road Bondi
Mobile phone: (8)…………………………
Occupation: (9)………………………………….
Free time interests: (10)……………………..………
Part 3: You are going to listen to a supervisor talking to a group of new nurses at a large hospital. Listen and choose the best option (A, B, or C) to answer each of the following questions. (5 pts)
11. According to Debbie, why do some people fail to eat a balanced diet?
A. They don’t know how to cook.
B. They don’t have enough time to cook.
C. They don’t feel hungry enough to cook.
12. Debbie recommends that staff should keep fit by
A. Using a gym.
B. Taking up a new sport.
C. Changing some daily activities.
13. Which benefit of exercise does Debbie think is most important?
A. It helps you sleep.
B. It keeps your heart healthy.
C. It improves mental skills.
14. What advice does Debbie give the nurses about health and safety?
A. To avoid drinking coffee.
B. To use the canteen at night.
C. To take regular breaks.
15. When she talks about hygiene, Debbie asks the nurses to
A. Wash their hands regularly.
B. Keep away from germs.
C. Help with the cleaning
PART B: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (3 pts)
16. A architect B. mechanic C. choir D. parachute
17. A. beloved B. dogged C. lived D. harvested
18. A. community B. computer C. museum D. customs
Question II: Choose the word whose main stress pattern is placed differently from the others. (2 pts)
19. A. desirable B. admirable C. valuable D. memorable
20. A. skateboard B. sticker C. adore D. leisure
PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Question I: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in each sentence. (10 pts)
21. She got up late and rushed to the bus stop.
A. came into B. went leisurely C. dropped by D. went quickly
22. Not a good movie, ________?
A. did it B. didn’t it C. was it D. wasn’t it
23. Don’t worry, everything is ________ control.
A. under B. without C. in D. at
24. The workers have gone on strike. ______, all production has ceased.
A. So that B. Because C. Therefore D. Now that
25. The man ________ without trace.
A. disappeared B. disappearing C. appeared D. appearing
26. Stop now, you’ve done ............................ work for one day.
A. too many B. plenty C. quite more D.quite enough
27. If you can win his attention ___________ for you.
A. the so much better B. the better so much
C. so much the better D. so the much better
28. It was ________ serious accident that he was kept in hospital for a month.
A. such B. such a C. so D. so a
29. Last year, there was a big typhoon in my area. It caused extensive damage to our _________.
A. property B. furniture C. wealth D. savings
30. Peter: Thanks for your help, John.
John: ________
A. With all my heart B. Never remind me C. Its my pleasure D. As you wish
Question II: Supply the correct form of the word in capital letters. (8 pts)
31. He is a bad manager in that factory and everyone is attempting to ________ him. FAME
32. A ________ lifestyle has its advantages and disadvantages. NOMAD
33. My brother has been a stamp ________ for several years. COLLECT
34. Ants and bees are described as __________ insects. INDUSTRY
35. The first time I tried out my new bike I ________ and felt off. BALANCE
36. Encouraging children to eat and drink ________ is very important. HEALTH
37. Please give ________ to that charity to help the homeless afer the flood.GENEROUS
38. The baby slept very ________ because the bed was really comfortable. SOUND
Question III: Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets to complete the following sentences. (7 pts)
39. Were it to rain heavily, we (stay) ___________ at home.
40. At 10 o’clock tomorrow he (work) ___________ in his office.
41. The gate (lock) ___________ at 6.30p.m everyday.
42. Carol appears (lose) ___________ some weight.
43. You will get used to (eat) ___________ with chopsticks soon, Mary.
44. Peter, together with his family members, (visit) _____ Opera House three times this year.
45. The presents (send) ___________ to me on my birthday were very precious but I didn’t like them anymore.
Question IV: Each of the following sentences has a mistake. Find and correct it. ( 5 points )
46. Of all the elements in the Earth’s crust, oxygen is known to be the more common.
A B C D
47. New laws should be introduced to reduce the number of traffic in the city center.
A B C D
48. He was awarded the employee of the year though his young age.
A B C D
49. In the future classrooms, exercise books will replace by laptop computer
A B C D
50. I like to go to the countryside and my little sister does, either.
A B C D
PART D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. (10 pts)
KATE FESTIVAL
Kate Festval is (51) __________ by the Cham people for 3 days at the beginning of
October. This event is held in a large space in the three Champa Towers (Po Nagar, PoKlong Garai and Po Rome). The main purpose of the festval is to (52) __________ their heroes like to Po Klong Garai and Po Rome. (53) __________, the festval is a chance for the local people to relax, meet and wish one another (54) __________ in the future. This is one of the biggest and most important events of the Cham people in Vietnam. (55) __________, it is a good opportunity for the visitors to explore the (56) __________ in the Cham culture, from architecture to costumes, instruments and traditonal songs that are used to praise their kings in the past. The Kate festval in each tower starts at the same tme on the same day, and the day afer, villages and family begin to hold their own rites. During the rite, the people (57) __________ their ancestors and gods with the help of a shaman, and then pray (58) __________ health and prosperity. The actual festvals (59) __________ afer the rites. It is a combinaton of traditonal music and dance, including some actvites (60) __________ performances of Ginang Drum and Saranai Flute or the traditonal dance of Cham girls.
51. A. organize B. organized C. hold D. being held
52. A. Commemorate B. see C. watch D. love
53. A. However B. Nevertheless C. Therefore D. Moreover
54. A. Lucky B. happy C. fortune D. dream
55. A. However B. Therefore C. Because D. Although
56. A. beautful B. Beautfully C. charm D. charming
57. A. Call B. ask C. shout D. speak
58. A. to B. about C. of D. for
59. A. take place B. take places C. take part D. take the place
60. A. Such B. so C. like D. like as
Question II: Fill in each blank of the following passage with only one suitable word. (10 pts)
Water is one of our most precious resources; put it simply, without water there would be no life. Unfortunately, many of us seem to have (61) ..........this fact, and as a result the world is (62) .......the danger of running (63) .........of water. The actual (64).....of water on earth has changed little since the time of dinosaurs. The problem has been (65) ..........by peoples misuse of our water supply. This not only means that we have polluted our rivers and seas, but also that we are (66) .......... a great deal of this precious resource. Unfortunately the destruction of the rain forests has (67) ..... this problem worse since much of the rain that falls is lost because it runs off into the sea. The population of the earth is increasing daily, so it is vital that we (68) ....... a solution to this problem before it is too late. The first step is to educate people, especially by reminding them of the (69) ..........of water. For most of us it is available whenever we require it, whether to bathe in or to drink, so we seldom bother to think about it. People then need to be thought how to reuse bath or shower for household cleaning. Whatever methods we decide to use, we must comprehend the worth of water and (70) ..............we can conserve it.
Question III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer from A,B,C,D. (10 pts)
Increasing numbers of parents in the U.S. are choosing to teach their children at home. In fact, the U.S. Department of Education has estimated that in 1999, about 850,000 children were being homeschooled. Some educational experts say that the real number is double this estimate, and the ranks of homeschooled children seem to be growing at the average rate of about eleven percent every year.
At one time, there was a theory accounting for homeschooling: it was traditionally used for students who could not attend school because of behavioral or learning difficulties. Today, however, more parents are taking on the responsibility of educating their own children at home due to their dissatisfaction with the educational system. Many parents are unhappy about class size, as well as problems inside the classroom. Teacher shortages and lack of funding mean that, in many schools, one teacher is responsible for thirty or forty students. The children are, therefore, deprived of the attention they need. Escalating classroom violence has also motivated some parents to remove their children from school.
Although there have been a lot of arguments for and against it, homeschooling in the U.S. has become a multi-million dollar industry, and it is growing bigger and bigger. There are now plenty of websites, support groups, and conventions that help parents protect their rights and enable them to learn more about educating their children. Though once it was the only choice for troubled children, homeschooling today is an accepted alternative to an educational system that many believe is failing.
71. The past participle “homeschooled” in the first paragraph is best equivalent to “_____at home”.
A. taught B. self-learned C. untaught D. self-studied
72. This estimated number was presented by _____.
A. a governmental office B. school teachers
C. the parents D. homeschooled children
73. According to some experts, the exact number of homeschooled children in the US in the last year of the 20th century must be _____.
A. 1,600,000 B. 850,000 C. 1,900,000 D. 1,700,000
74. Parents can teach children at home with the support of __________.
A. The internet, conventions along with support groups
B. support groups, teachers and websites
C. documents, websites and support groups
D. books, support groups and the Internet
75. More parents teach their children because they completely _____ the current educational system.
A. please with B. object to C. appeal to D. approve of
76. The word “arguments” at the beginning of the third paragraph can be best replaced by “_____”.
A. rows B. quarrels C. viewpoints D. discussions
77. The attitude of the author towards homeschooling can be best described as _____.
A. acceptable B. favorable C. remarkable D. unfavorable
78. The number of parents who want to teach their own children in the U.S. is _____.
A. remaining unchanged B. remaining the same
C. going up D. going down
79. Many parents stop their children from going to school because it is now too _____ for them.
A. explosive B. expensive C. dangerous D. humorous
80. Which is the best tittle for the passage?
A. Reasons for Homeschooling in the USA.
B. The Trend of homeschooling in the USA.
C. Homeschooling- one of the ways of education in the USA.
D. Education system in the USA.

PART E: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed above it.
81. Not many people came to his wedding party.
à There was ...............................................................................................
82. I prefer going out for a meal to staying at home.
à I’d rather ……………………………………………………………………………………………
83. It’s difficult for older people to learn a language.
à Older people have ……………………………………………………..
84. His rude behavior is too much for me.
à I can’t put ………………………………………………………………
85. The mountain route is obviously dangerous, but there is no alternative.
à Dangerous ……………………………………………………………..
Question II. Finish each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the sentence printed before it, using the word given. DON’T CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN
86. When the Minister was asked about the strike, he declined to comment. ASKED
à On ............................................................................................................
87. As she grows older, she becomes increasingly cheerful. MORE
à The older…………………………………………………………………
88.Yoss did not come to class yesterday. FROM à Yoss was .....................................................................................................
89. This problem cannot be solved instantly. TO
à There is .......................................................................................................
90. Sarah wore big dark glasses so that no one would recognize her. AVOID
ð In order to avoid ………………………………………………………………………….
Question III: Paragraph writing. (10 pts)
Nowadays our air is seriously polluted by human’s activities, in about 100- 150 words write a paragraph about the things you should do to make contribution to reduce the air pollution.
Họ và tên thí sinh: ................................................. Số báo danh: ...................
PHÒNG GD&ĐT HUYỆN QUẢNG XƯƠNG
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ GIAO LƯU HSG TIẾNG ANH 8-NĂM HỌC 2022- 2023
PART A: LISTENING (15 pts)
Part 1: Courtney is describing her recent trip. Are these statements true or false? (5 pts)
1.F 2.F 3.T 4.T 5.T
Part 2: You are going to listen to a conversation with a woman who wants to join an international social club. Listen and complete the form. (5 pts)
6.Malaysian 7. 13 Anglesea 8. 040 422 9160 9. Economist 10. dancing
Part 3: You are going to listen to a supervisor talking to a group of new nurses at a large hospital. Listen and choose the best option (A, B, or C) to answer each of the following questions. (5 pts)
11.B 12.C 13.A 14.C 15.C
PART B: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (3 pts)
16.D 17. C 18. D
Question II: Choose the word whose main stress pattern is placed differently from the others. (2 pts)
19. A 20. C
PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Question I: Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in each sentence. (10 pts)
21.D 22.C 23.A 24.C 25.A
26.D 27.C 28.B 29.A 30.C
Question II: Supply the correct form of the word in capital letters. (8 pts)
31. defame
32. nomadic
33. collector
34. industrious
35. overbalanced
36. healthily
37. generosity
38. soundly
Question III: Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets to complete the following sentences. (7 pts)
39. would stay
40. will be working
41. is locked
42. to have lost
43. eating
44. has visited
45. sent
IV: Each of the following sentences has a mistake. Find and correct.
(5 points)
46. D. more - most 47. C. number - amount
48 . C. though - despite
49. C- will be replaced 50 .D- too

PART D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. (10 pts)
51. B 52. A 53. D 54. C 55. B
56. C 57. A 58. D 59. A 60. C
Question II: Fill in each blank of the following passage with only one suitable word. (10 pts)
61. forgotten
64. amount
67. made
69. value
62. facing
65. caused
68. find
70. how
63. out
66. wasting
Question III: Read the following passage and choose the best answer from A,B,C,D. (10pts)
71. D 72. A 73. D 74. A 75. B
76. D 77. B 78. C 79. C 80. C
PART E: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed above it.
81. There was poor attendance to his wedding party.
82. I’d rather go out for a meal than stay at home.
83. Older people have difficulty (in) learning a language.
84. I can not put up with his rude behavior.
85. Dangerous as/though the mountain route obviously is, there is no alternative.
Question II. Finish each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the sentence printed before it, using the word given. DON’T CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN
86. On being asked about the strike, the Minister declined to comment .
87. The older she grows, the more cheerful she becomes.
88. Yoss was absent from class yesterday.
89. There is no instant solution to this problem.
90. ð In order to avoid being recognized, Sarah wore big dark glasses.
Question III: Paragraph writing
Making scheme: The impression mark should be based on the following scheme
1. Format: 2pts (Coherence, cohesion, style)
The essay include 3 parts:
a. Introduction : shoud be put in one paragraph in which students’ points of view are clearly expressed.
b. Body: should consist of from two or three paragraphs. Each paragraph must have a topic sentence, reasonings and examples/explanations.
c. Conclusion: summarize the main reasons, students’ comment.
2. Contents: 5pts
A ptovision of main ideas and details as appropriate to support the argument.
Note:
* Students can totally agree/ disagree or partially agree.
* Students can give their opinon right in the introduction or discuss the issue and give his/her own opinion in the conclusion.
3. Language: 3pts (grammatical accuracy, a wide range of vocabulary and structures)
B. HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
- Tổng điểm toàn bài là 100 điểm, mỗi câu đúng được 1 điểm
- Cách quy đổi điểm bài thi về thang điểm 20:
Điểm bài thi =
Tổng số câu đúng
5
- Điểm bài thi được làm tròn đến 0,2
_______ THE END _______
onthicaptoc.com

onthicaptoc.com De giao luu HSG Anh 8 Huyen NGA SON 24 25