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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
TỈNH QUẢNG NAM
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề gồm có 11 trang)
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH THPT
NĂM HỌC 2023 – 2024 ĐỢT 2
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH 12 (KHÔNG CHUYÊN)
Thời gian: 90 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Mã đề: 718
Khóa thi ngày: 15/3/2024
SECTION I. LISTENING
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
* Mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần có tín hiệu.
* Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
Part 1. You will hear part of a talk on prehistoric visual art. Choose the answer (A, B, C, or D) which fits best according to what you hear.
Question 1. When do the earliest paintings date back?
A. 14,000 years ago B. 4,000 years ago C. 40,000 years ago D. 1,400 years ago
Question 2. Most of the common themes include animals, humans and _______.
A. hunting contexts B. abstract patterns
C. beauties of nature D. wild lions
Question 3. What material is primarily chosen for the outlines?
A. manganese oxide B. hematite C. rock D. charcoal
Question 4. In order to increase the number of animals for food, the images of animals are believed to have _______.
A. decorative qualities B. portrayal qualities
C. magic qualities D. colour qualities
Question 5. Which of the following is NOT true of petroglyphs?
A. They have a cultural impact on their descendants.
B. The images are carved into rock surfaces.
C. They existed from 12,000 years ago until the 20th century.
D. They mainly focus on arithmetic designs.
Question 6. The designs of petroglyphs are universally similar due to _______.
A. human brain’s structure B. form constants
C. visual disturbances D. hallucinations
Question 7. Where can geoglyphs be found?
A. in Peru B. worldwide
C. in highland regions D. in the Nazca Desert
Question 8. The figures in Nazca Lines are captivating as they can be seen _______.
A. from different positions B. from the air
C. in different shapes D. in all sizes
Part 2. You will hear part of a radio programme in which two athletes, Julia Im and Darren Finn, are discussing their success at a recent athletics event. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) which fits best according to what you hear.
Question 9. Julia believes the main reason for the newfound success in tennis is due to _______.
A. an increase in the number of coaching staff
B. the level of financial investment in the sport
C. the recently improved range of facilities
D. the impact of foreign coach
Question 10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as the obstacles to Julia’s success?
A. Insufficient infrastructure B. Inappropriate coaching system
C. Lack of self-discipline D. Lack of professionalism
Question 11. Julia and Darren agree that _______.
A. the sporting infrastructure needs to be improved
B. there is a lack of experienced foreign coaches
C. there will be a huge funding increase for both their sports now
D. the coaching policy was a key ingredient in their success
Question 12. Why does Darren think that most of his colleagues are not fortunate enough?
A. They don’t train to become professionals.
B. They don’t attain sponsorship for their training.
C. They don’t have a chance to work with full-time professionals.
D. They don’t receive full-time training.
Question 13. Darren suggests that his motivation to succeed was _______.
A. to remove some of the obstacles to future success
B. so as not to have to work part-time
C. in order to get corporate sponsorship
D. to receive a generous grant
Question 14. With regard to the current funding policy, Julia _______.
A. recognises the logic behind it
B. feels it is only a matter of time before it changes
C. thinks funds could be invested more cleverly
D. is heavily critical of it
Question 15. What does Darren say about his discipline?
A. Many investment board members come from his discipline.
B. His discipline is attracting more financial investment.
C. His discipline is ignored in comparison to tradiontional ones.
D. His discipline has received as many medals as long-distance running.
Question 16. Darren suggests that _______.
A. the criteria for investment are unjust
B. long-distance running has been neglected
C. funding decisions are not impartial and fair
D. more money should be invested in traditional sports
SECTION II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Part 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 17. Far from sidestepping the issue, she should _______ and seek alternative solutions.
A. shake it to her foundations B. jump out of her skin
C. batten down the hatches D. snap her head off
Question 18. I don’t believe there is the slightest _______ of truth in what you’ve just said.
A. grain B. shell C. seed D. kernel
Question 19. The President is clearly in a _______ about how to tackle the crisis.
A. problem B. puzzle C. loss D. dilemma
Question 20. The African killer bees could not be handled safely, nor _______.
A. could not their honey be harvested B. harvested could their honey be
C. their honey could be harvested D. could their honey be harvested
Question 21. The noise from the unruly fans celebrating their team’s victory didn’t _______ until early in the morning.
A. let up B. fall over C. give away D. shut off
Question 22. It is the recommendation of many psychologists _______ to associate words and remember names.
A. that a learner must use mental images B. that a learner uses mental images
C. mental images are used D. that a learner use mental images
Question 23. I’ve been searching _______ for that old photo album, but I can’t find it anywhere.
A. long and short B. high and low
C. thick and thin D. straight and narrow
Question 24. There have been a few cases of Asian flu recently but there _______ no cause for alarm.
A. was felt being B. is felt to be
C. feels to be D. has been felt there is
Question 25. The minister made no _______ of any further negotiations.
A. mention B. comment C. remark D. indication
Question 26. Why people call him a _______ is clearly manifested in his immense wealth of technical knowledge.
A. migrant B. vagrant C. savant D. recluse
Question 27. Our tenants have _______ with the rent again. How can we persuade them to pay us the money they owe?
A. put up B. poured through C. broken down D. fallen behind
Question 28. William has _______ a new world record, with five consecutive Olympic gold medals in weightlifting.
A. took B. made C. put D. set
Question 29. _______ for the final interview, the candidates were asked to prepare a short presentation.
A. Having selected B. Being selected
C. Having been selected D. Selecting
Question 30. Julie felt unfairly _______ when she spoke out against a company proposal and the entire staff team turned against her.
A. prosecuted B. suppressed C. oppressed D. persecuted
Question 31. The coastguard duties included patrolling paths at the top of high and sheer cliffs – not a job for the _______.
A. bloody-minded B. weak-willed C. light-headed D. faint-hearted
Question 32. _______ appear, they are really much larger than the Earth.
A. Small as the stars B. Despite the small stars
C. The stars as small D. As the small stars
Part 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 33. The government must be able to prevent and deter threats to our homeland as well as detect impending danger before attacks or incidents occur.
A. imminent B. formidable C. irrefutable D. absolute
Question 34. Tom was too wet behind the ears to be in charge of such a difficult task.
A. lacking in experience B. lacking in money
C. full of sincerity D. full of experience
Part 3. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 35. Despite careful preparation, the candidate got cold feet when asked a challenging question and gave an unsatisfactory answer.
A. became aggressive B. got excited
C. stayed confident D. became hostile
Question 36. Africa’s farmland is rapidly becoming barren and incapable of sustaining the continent’s already hungry population, according to a report.
A. arid B. desert C. fruitful D. sterile
Part 4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 37. The school officials are considering a comprehensive planning to alleviate the
problem of overcrowding in the dormitories.
A. overcrowding B. are C. alleviate D. planning
Question 38. An important factor should be considered is Mr. Lopezs ability to keep the new
restaurant going for several months with limited revenue.
A. for several B. should be considered
C. ability to keep D. with limited revenue
Part 5. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 39. Frisco’s tennis tutor is complimenting him on his performance.
Tony: “I thought your tennis game was a lot better today, Frisco.”
Frisco: “_______. I thought it was terrible.”
A. Thanks! Same to you B. You’ve got to be kidding
C. You can say that again D. No, I think so
Question 40. Laura is talking to Ken about her plan for the weekend.
Laura: “I’m having some friends over for lunch this Saturday. Would you like to join us?”
Ken: “_______”
A. Are you sure? It’s understandable.
B. Can I take a rain check?
C. Come on. It’s your turn.
D. Thanks, but I mustn’t.
SECTION III. READING
Part 1. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
ROBOTIC AUTOMATION
Today, we are on the brink of widespread robotic automation. According to some predictions, millions of workers could be made (41)_______ by 2030 and up to 20% of the global labor pool might find themselves (42)_______ a job. While this (43)_______ may seem depressing, it is not necessarily so.
Jobs requiring distinctly human traits such as compassion, creativity, and social intelligence are less likely to be automated, as (44)_______ specialized manual jobs like care of the elderly. But automation will apply to more routine jobs in factories and offices – the introduction of computers into offices saw the demand for (45)_______ staff hit rock bottom. (46)_______, it generated a whole range of new positions, such as IT specialists.
Similarly, because of advanced algorithms, online shopping has increased, putting some small stores (47)_______ business, yet generating roles for website designers and copywriters. Online stores also collect information on their clients’ shopping habits, generating demand for data analysts with (48)_______ in cyber security, as all this information must be kept strictly confidential. Clearly, new technology can release us from repetitive work to do the jobs which involve creativity and problem-solving.
Question 41. A. voluntary B. permanent C. freelance D. redundant
Question 42. A. searching B. to search for C. searching out D. in search of
Question 43. A. record B. outlook C. perspective D. challenge
Question 44. A. will B. are C. have D. do
Question 45. A. secretariat B. secretarial C. secretary D. secretive
Question 46. A. However B. Otherwise C. Furthermore D. Therefore
Question 47. A. off from B. into some C. out of D. under the
Question 48. A. expertise B. investigation C. education D. collaboration
Part 2. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
HOT SPRINGS
Hot springs are found on every continent and on the ocean floors of the earth. [A] They are produced by the powerful emergence of heated groundwater from a fissure in the Earth’s crust. Water from the hot springs of the Yellowstone National Park, a volcanic zone, is likely heated when it comes into contact with molten rocks. [B] On the ocean floor, the phenomenon is called a hydrothermal vent. The water that issues is warmed by the heat from the interior of the earth: this is known as geothermal heat. [C] Scientists believe that the temperature of rocks within the earth increases as they go deeper. The increase is about 3 to 5oF and results from the natural radioactive decay of elements such as potassium, uranium and thorium. [D]
In some areas where hot springs exist, it is not certain what the exact source of heat is. These areas are non-volcanic zones, and any molten material that existed in the ancient past would have cooled, so it is not likely to be source of heat. Scientists theorize that the water is heated by convective circulation: groundwater, which moves downwards to a depth of a kilometer or more, is warmed by the hotter rock and then moves back upwards. They base the origin of the groundwater on two alternatives: water rising from hot magma in the depths of the earth, or rainwater percolating deep into the crust and becoming heated. The second alternative is more probable. Scientific tests have shown that the water of hot springs contains the elements of hydrogen and oxygen in similar forms, known as isotopes. By determining the abundance of isotopes in the hot spring water and comparing these with data collected from different kinds of water around the world, scientists have conjectured that the water is rainwater that rained on the earth some 4,000 years ago.
Several definitions of hot springs exist and none of which are universally accepted. Some scientists accept hot springs to be any geothermally-heated spring, others say that any spring with a water temperature higher that its surroundings should be considered a hot spring, and still others insist that the temperature of water must be higher than 98oF. The hottest hot springs are over 120oF. The temperature of some hot springs is high enough to have various applications of geothermal energy developed. The water may become so hot that it erupts above the surface of the earth in a geyser. Some people who have jumped into a hot spring without knowing the temperature have been killed.
Question 49. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Scientific interest in hot springs has centered on their heat and water sources.
B. Hydrothermal vents are a type of hot springs found under the ocean.
C. Hot springs are located in virtually every place around the world.
D. Hot springs are defined according to the temperature of the water.
Question 50. The word fissure in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. volcano B. crack C. vent D. element
Question 51. The word it in the passage refers to _______.
A. the Yellow National Park B. a volcanic zone
C. water D. ocean
Question 52. Look at the [A], [B], [C] and [D] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage.
Another cause of the increase in heat is the compression of the planet’s interior by gravitational forces.
Where would be the sentence best fit?
A. [B] B. [D] C. [C] D. [A]
Question 53. What can be inferred about the origin of groundwater?
A. It can be determined what the origin is.
B. It likely comes from deep inside the earth.
C. It is not one hundred percent certain where it comes from.
D. It may come from a source that scientists are unaware of.
Question 54. All of the following have been given as definitions of hot springs EXCEPT that _______.
A. It is a spring that is heated geothermally
B. It is a spring whose temperature is higher than that of area around
C. It is a spring which erupts above ground level
D. It is a spring that must be at least 98oF
Question 55. Why does the author mention a geyser?
A. To illustrate how hot a hot spring can be B. To provide another definition of hot springs
C. To compare two types of springs D. To give an example of a hot spring
Question 56. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is true of hot springs?
A. They can be harnessed for use as power. B. They may contain poisonous substances.
C. They are normally over 120oF D. Swimming is banned in some hot springs.
Part 3. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
CHILD LABOR
Child labor has been an accepted practice throughout much of human history. In traditional agrarian economies, large families were considered an asset because they provided more hands to help with the farm work. This form of child labor was relatively benign, because children worked within their own families, who had a vested interest in their children’s welfare for both practical and emotional reasons.
During the advent of the Industrial Revolution, the widespread acceptance of child labor meant that children made up a large percentage of those who moved from the farm to the factory. In 1833, nearly two thirds of the factory workers in Leeds, a major industrial center in England, were under the age of 15. Nor was England the only nation where children formed a majority of the factory workforce. As the Industrial Revolution spread throughout Europe and the United States, so did this new form of child labor. Child labor in Industrial Revolution factories, however, quickly proved to be far less benign than child labor on the homestead. With no legal safeguards, children working in the factories of this time were little more than the chattel of indifferent factory owners. It was typical for a child to work more than ten hours a day under miserable conditions for 30-40% of the wages paid for an adult. Furthermore, children were subjected to harsh punishments when they failed to keep pace with older workers. Children were routinely whipped, dunked in cold water, or subjected to other inhumane punishments when they failed to meet their work quotas. Children who ran away to escape such treatment were occasionally chained to their work stations.
The results of such conditions were horrific. In Leeds, the mortality rate for children was nearly 10%. Even considering the inferior medical technology of the time, this was an unprecedented number. Children who survived the factories often did not fare much better. Little thought was given to their safety, and many children had their limbs mangled in the dangerous machinery of the factory. The strain of doing heavy lifting and working long hours warped their soft, still growing bones, so that as they grew up, these factory children were often left as deformed parodies of men and women.
Conditions for child laborers reached their lowest point in the early 1830s. At that point, society began to take notice of their plight. The first child labor law was introduced in 1833. It was a weak law that did little except limit the hours children could work. However, other laws followed, and the conditions for child laborers slowly improved. By the turn of the century, child labor laws had established relatively humane conditions throughout the industrialized West.
Issues of child labor, however, did not disappear. During the 20th century, much of the Third World underwent an industrial revolution of its own, a revolution which is still ongoing today. It is estimated that there are currently 246 million children under the age of 15 engaged in child labor worldwide. Of that number, nearly three fourths are engaged in work that is classified as potentially hazardous. The largest proportion of these children is found in Asia, where nearly 19% of all children (126 million) are engaged in some form of child labor. Africa also has significant problems with child labor, and nearly one in every three African children (48 million) works.
Resolving modern child labor problems, however, is a complex issue. Many of the nations where child labor presents the greatest problems are among the poorest in the world, and the income from child labor is desperately needed to support the family. Furthermore, these nations have little or no social safety net of orphans, so the choice for children who have lost their parents is either to work or to starve. Therefore, passing laws that simply ban child labor is often unenforceable and ineffective. For example, when the US banned car exports from Nepal in the 1990s due to that nation’s lack of child labor laws, nearly 7,000 Nepalese children were forced into prostitution to make up for the income lost due to the reduction of factory jobs. Therefore, when dealing with modern child labor issues, thought must be given to the broader social problems that often necessitate that labor.
Question 57. The word benign in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. common B. necessary C. acceptable D. gentle
Question 58. According to the passage, why were children treated so much worse in factories than in earlier forms of child labor?
A. Children often made mistakes that damaged valuable machinery.
B. Children were slow workers and couldn’t keep pace with the adults.
C. The factory owners saw no reason to protect the children as their families had.
D. The factories wished to protect their profit margins by cutting corners on safety.
Question 59. According to paragraph 2, why did children make up such a large percentage of the factory workforce during the Industrial Revolution?
A. The limited space on the factory floor made the use of children more efficient.
B. Centuries of agrarian life had accustomed people to child labor.
C. Factory owners were able to pay children less than adults.
D. The adults were still required to work on the farms.
Question 60. In paragraph 2, the author mentions all of the following as hardships for child laborers during the Industrial Revolution EXCEPT _______.
A. random firings B. severe punishments
C. poor work conditions D. long work hours
Question 61. In paragraph 2, why does the author discuss the wages paid to children?
A. To explain the economic benefits of child labor
B. To emphasize their unfair treatment in the factories
C. To explain why many families needed their children to work
D. To suggest they were expected to do less work than adults
Question 62. Based on the information in paragraph 3, it can be inferred that child mortality rates _______.
A. were higher during the Industrial Revolution than in earlier times
B. caused a significant decline in overall population during the Industrial Revolution
C. were highest among those children whose bones had been deformed in the factories
D. are largely independent of factory conditions for laborers
Question 63. According to paragraph 5, why is child labor currently an issue in many Third World countries?
A. They have many hazardous, industrial jobs.
B. They have more relaxed attitudes towards child labor.
C. They are currently converting into industrial economies.
D. Large segments of their populations are under the age of 15.
Question 64. According to paragraph 6, why is legislation often an ineffective means of controlling child labor in Third World countries?
A. Legislation does not address issues like child prostitution.
B. First World nations cannot enforce their legislation in Third World nations.
C. Legislation takes away the social safety net in these nations.
D. Legislation does not reduce the economic need that brings about child labor.
SECTION IV. WRITING
Part 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 65. The government made every effort to control inflation. Economic growth could hardly be achieved.
A. As the government made every effort to control inflation, economic growth could hardly be achieved.
B. Making every effort to control inflation, the government grow economy successfully.
C. Had it not been for the government’s every effort, economic growth couldn’t be achieved.
D. Economic growth could hardly be achieved no matter what effort the government made to take control of inflation.
Question 66. Henry submitted the report on the issues related to social crime. He was the last person who did it.
A. Everyone had submitted the report on the issues related to social crime before Henry did.
B. The last people who submitted the report on the issues related to social crime was Henry.
C. Everyone had heard about the report on the issues related to social crime before Henry did.
D. The last thing Henry submitted was his report on the issues related to social crime.
Question 67. People use pesticides and fertilizers. They want to increase crop production.
A. People use pesticides and fertilizers with the aim of increasing crop production.
B. People use pesticides and fertilizers, so they want to increase crop production.
C. People want to increase crop production because they use pesticides and fertilizers.
D. Unless people want to increase crop production, they use pesticides and fertilizers.
Question 68. Sex education is very important. Many schools have begun teaching it to their students.
A. Sex education is of such importance that many schools have begun teaching it to their students.
B. It is only when their students grasp the importance of sex education that many schools begin teaching it.
C. Not until their students are aware of the importance of sex education will many schools begin teaching it.
D. Important as sex education is, many schools have begun teaching it to their students.
Question 69. In 1986, the rate of unemployment in Thailand was about 15%. In 1990, it was about 18%.
A. The rate of unemployment in Thailand increased by 3% in 1990, followed by a slight decrease to 15% in 1986.
B. In 1986, the rate of unemployment in Thailand was about 15% after falling slightly by 3% in the period of four years.
C. In 1986, the rate of unemployment in Thailand was about 15%, followed by a slight increase of 3% in 1990.
D. The rate of unemployment in Thailand rose to 18% in 1990 before falling to 15% in the period of four years from 1986.
Question 70. Melissa did not put any effort into practicing sports. She cannot keep fit and healthy now.
A. If Melissa had put her effort into practicing sports, she could keep fit and healthy now.
B. Even Melissa put great effort into practicing sports, she cannot keep fit and healthy now.
C. Although Melissa did not put any effort into practicing sports, she couldn’t keep fit and healthy.
D. Melissa did not put any effort into practicing sports, but she can keep fit and healthy now.
Question 71. Yuri Gagarin made a successful space flight in 1961. Human’s uncertainties about universe were enlightened only then.
A. Not until human’s uncertainties about universe were enlightened did Yuri Gagarin make a successful space flight in 1961.
B. Only after Yuri Gagarin had made a successful space flight in 1961 were human’s uncertainties about universe enlightened.
C. Hardly had Yuri Gagarin made a successful space flight in 1961 when human’s uncertainties about universe were enlightened.
D. Without human’s uncertainties about universe, Yuri Gagarin wouldn’t have made a successful space flight in 1961.
Question 72. Fossil fuels are overused by many factories. They might be used up in the near future.
A. Overused by many factories, fossil fuels might be used up in the near future.
B. Used up in the near future, fossil fuels are overused by many factories.
C. Due to being used up in the near future, fossil fuels are overused by many factories.
D. Despite being overused by many factories, fossil fuels might be used up in the near future.
Part 2. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 73. With the exception of the art teacher, every member of school staff attended the ceremony.
A. All the staff members including the art teacher attended the ceremony.
B. The art teacher was the only member of the school staff not to attend the ceremony.
C. The ceremony welcomes all the school staff as well as art teachers
D. The art teacher was very exceptional at the ceremony.
Question 74. Why don’t you get someone to update the new computer program for me?
A. Shall I have the new computer program updated for you?
B. Why don’t you ask someone to update the new computer program for me?
C. I suggest that you update the new computer program for me.
D. Why don’t you have the new computer program updated by yourself?
Question 75. Wouldn’t it be better to let them know about the alterations to the plan?
A. Shouldn’t they have been consulted before the scheme was changed?
B. Why haven’t they been informed about the new development?
C. We’d better ask them to change the plan, hadn’t we?
D. Don’t you think they should be informed about the changes in the plan?
Question 76. Soil eruption is result of forests being cut down carelessly.
A. That forests are being cut down carelessly results from soil eruption.
B. Soil eruption contributes to forests being cut down carelessly.
C. That forests are being cut down carelessly results in soil eruption.
D. Soil eruption results in forests being cut down carelessly.
Question 77. “It must be Mike who leaked the document,” said our manager.
A. Our manager didn’t appreciate Mike’s having leaked the document.
B. Our manager charged Mike for having leaked the document.
C. Our manager suspected Mike of having leaked the document.
D. Our manager showed his uncertainty about Mike’s having leaked the document.
Question 78. I’m sure he worked his socks off to get to the conference in time.
A. He needn’t work his socks off to get to the conference in time.
B. He must have worked his socks off to get to the conference in time.
C. He should have worked his socks off to get to the conference in time.
D. He must work his socks off to get to the conference in time.
Question 79. We couldn’t have been able to go to the final match without the coach’s flexible strategies.
A. If we were able to go to the final match, the coach would have flexible strategies.
B. We could have been able to go to the final match with the coach’s flexible strategies.
C. Had it not been for the coach’s flexible strategies, we couldn’t have been able to go to the final match.
D. If we hadn’t been able to go to the final match, we would have had the coach’s flexible
strategies.
Question 80. Many young girls become victims of domestic violence.
A. Teenage girls are the group at risk of domestic violence.
B. A large number of teenage girls fall victim to domestic violence.
C. The violence that many young girls suffer is domestic only.
D. The victims of domestic violence are mostly young girls.
---------- HẾT ----------
ĐÁP ÁN
1
C
11
D
21
A
31
D
41
D
51
C
61
B
71
B
2
B
12
B
22
D
32
A
42
D
52
B
62
A
72
A
3
D
13
A
23
B
33
A
43
B
53
C
63
C
73
B
4
C
14
A
24
B
34
A
44
B
54
C
64
D
74
B
5
D
15
C
25
A
35
C
45
B
55
A
65
D
75
D
6
A
16
C
26
C
36
C
46
A
56
A
66
A
76
C
7
B
17
C
27
D
37
D
47
C
57
D
67
A
77
C
8
B
18
A
28
D
38

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