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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH THPT
TỈNH QUẢNG NAM NĂM HỌC 2021-2022
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH 12
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

Thời gian: 90 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề)
(Đề gồm có 11 trang) Ngày thi: 22/3/2022
Mã đề 722


Họ và tên thí sinh:……………………………………….Phòng thi ………Số báo danh: ……
Thí sinh KHÔNG được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển
Giám thị KHÔNG giải thích gì thêm.
(Thí sinh làm bài trên Phiếu trả lời trắc nghiệm)
SECTION I. LISTENING
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
• Mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần có tín hiệu.
• Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

Part 1. You will hear people talking in eight different situations. For questions 1-8, choose the best answer (A, B or C).
Question 1: You overhear two people talking in a restaurant.
Where has the woman just come from?
A. a supermarket B. a hospital C. a football match
Question 2: You hear a man talking about a mobile phone he has bought.
What most attracted him to this phone?
A. its size B. its reliability C. its price
Question 3: You hear a man talking on the phone about buying a house.
What is the purpose of his call?
A. to apologize B. to complain C. to obtain information
Question 4: You hear a teenage girl talking about her hobby.
What is she talking about?
A. a computer game B. a musical instrument C. a piece of sports equipment
Question 5: On the news, you hear a story about a cat.
Where was the cat found?
A. in a train carriage B. on the railway lines C. on a station platform
Question 6: You hear a woman talking about how she gets ideas for her work.
Who is the woman?
A. a novelist B. an artist C. a film-maker
Question 7: You hear two people talking.
How does the woman feel?
A. surprised B. satisfied C. relieved
Question 8: You turn on the radio and hear a man speaking.
What are you listening to?
A. a history programme B. a science-fiction story C. an advertisement

Part 2. You will listen to part of an interview with the press officer of the National Fitness Association, in which he gives advice on how to join the right gym. For questions 9 - 15, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear.
Question 9: Why is it advisable to research gyms in your area before you join?
A. Some gyms have too much of a social scene.
B. Its impossible to lose weight in the wrong gym.
C. Different gyms suit people with different needs.
Question 10: Mark warns that joining a gym which is unsuitable for you ________.
A. will make you want to give up
B. could end up being expensive
C. might prove embarrassing
Question 11: According to Mark, when should you visit a gym for the first time?
A. On any weekday. B. When its at its busiest. C. At a relatively quiet time. Question 12: Apart from the standard monthly cost of being a member, you should find out ________.
A. whether the changing rooms are expensive
B. whether there are any hidden costs
C. whether personal trainers are compulsory
Question 13: If the gym asks you to sign a contract, you should ________.
A. be suspicious of that gym
B. see what happens if you leave
C. study it closely on your own
Question 14: Why does Mark say that life memberships are not good?
A. You might decide to live elsewhere.
B. The gym might move far away from you.
C. You might change your mind about exercise.
Question 15: Mark says that doing research before joining is worth it because ________.
A. it can make a difference to the overall cost
B. the right gym can improve your quality of life
C. it will encourage you to start exercising

SECTION II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR
Part 1. For questions 16-32, mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 16: Points will be added to the Entrance Examination scores for those who hold an excellent high school _______.
A. degree B. certificate C. diploma D. qualification
Question 17: Fast food is very popular. _______, a diet of hamburgers, pizzas and fried chicken is not very healthy.
A. In contrast B. Unfortunately C. Moreover D. Consequently
Question 18: Her colleagues put her _______ as a hopeless case, but she proved to be the most talented of all politicians.
A. off B. down C. through D. into
Question 19: Over half of the population of this earthquake-stricken area are living _______.
A. on the tenterhooks B. on the breadline
C. on the house D. on the cards
Question 20: _______ what the coach said yesterday, everything would not be so difficult now.
A. Should you listen to B. Had you listened to
C. Had you not listened to D. Were you to listen to Question 21: The mirror _______ broken when I dropped it in the bathroom.
A. got B. turned C. grew D. felt
Question 22: Im afraid that this incident could put your career here _______.
A. beyond a joke B. at fault C. in earnest D. in jeopardy
Question 23: Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by_______ rocking chair.
A. a beautiful old European wooden B. a wooden old beautiful European
C. an old wooden European beautiful D. an old beautiful wooden European
Question 24: During the Covid-19 pandemic, I experienced the most _______ painful nasal swabs that I have ever had.
A. exasperatedly B. exaggeratedly
C. excruciatingly D. exculpatorily
Question 25: I don’t like a few things about my job, but _______ it is quite enjoyable.
A. sooner or later B. by and large
C. what is more D. by mistake
Question 26: The project has progressed in _______ and starts due to a constant change in funding.
A. fits B. bits C. sits D. wits
Question 27: _______ the distance was too far and the time was short, we decided to fly there instead of going there by train.
A. To discover B. Discovered C. To have discovered D. Discovering
Question 28: It’s as if that silly argument we had has driven a _______ between us and weve lost all our old closeness.
A. plank B. ledge C. beam D. wedge
Question 29: In _______, with the benefits of hindsight, it is clear that this was a bad decision.
A. reflection B. retrospect
C. status quo D. a second thought
Question 30: The building _______ to withstand earthquakes collapsed yesterday in an earthquake. How ironic!
A. was designed B. had been designed
C. designed D. to be designed
Question 31: Nowhere in the northern section of the United States _______ for growing citrus crops.
A. is there suitability of the climate B. the climate is suitable
C. where the climate is suitable D. is the climate suitable
Question 32: While backpacking in a quiet, traditional region, I came across the seemingly _______fast food ads typical of my hometown.
A. irritating B. invasive C. infuriating D. ubiquitous
Part 2. For questions 33-34, mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 33: Every time he opens his mouth, he immediately regrets what he said. He’s always putting his foot in his mouth.
A. making a mistake
B. doing things in the wrong order
C. saying embarrassing things
D. speaking indirectly
Question 34: It’s outrageous! They charged me double the price of an ordinary bottle of wine in that restaurant.
A. undesirable B. competitive C. outstanding D. scandalous
Part 3. For questions 35-36, mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 35: The technical department enthusiastically hired Ms. Long because she was proficient in the use of computers.
A. skilled B. adequate C. incapable D. competent
Question 36: I think having a beer during a meeting with your boss is clearly overstepping the mark.
A. doing a completely acceptable thing
B. behaving in an improper way
C. making your boss satisfied
D. do something over
Part 4. For questions 37-38, mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 37: Upon reaching the destination, a number of personnel are expected to change its
A B C reservations and proceed to Hawaii.
D
Question 38: In Italy, public opinion as a whole was favourite to the visit, especially as it was not
A B C considered an obstacle to the protected increase of the army and navy.
D
Part 5. For questions 39-40, mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 39: Harry and Meghan are discussing ways of learning English.
- Harry: “I think that if I learn enough vocabulary, I won’t have any trouble using English.”
- Meghan: “________. Not only should we focus on vocabulary, we should focus on grammar as well.”
A. I couldn’t agree with you more B. It is not as simple as it seems
C. I don’t think so either D. There’s no doubt about that
Question 40: Tom and Linda are talking about jobs they would like to choose.
- Tom: “I think working as a doctor is a challenging job.”
- Linda: “________”
A. Not at all.
B. I’m sorry, but I agree with you.
C. That’s exactly what I think.
D. It’s a good idea.

SECTION III. READING
Part 1. For questions 41-48, read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Disruptive technologies are now dictating our future, as new innovations increasingly (41)_____ the lines between physical, digital and biological realms. Robots are already in our operating rooms and fast-food restaurants; we can now use 3D imaging and stem-cell (42)_____ to grow human bones from a patients own cells; and 3D printing is creating a circular economy in which we can use and then reuse raw materials.
This tsunami of technological innovation will continue to (43)_____ change how we live and work, and how our societies operate. In what is now called the Fourth Industrial Revolution, technologies that are coming of age - including robotics, nanotechnology, virtual reality, 3D printing, the Internet of Things, artificial intelligence and advanced biology - will (44)_____. And as these technologies continue to be developed and widely adopted, they will bring about radical shifts in all disciplines, industries and economies, and in the way that we produce, distribute, consume and dispose of goods and services.
These developments have provoked anxious questions about what role humans will play in a technology-driven world. A 2013 University of Oxford study estimates that (45)_____ half of all jobs in the United States could be lost to automation over the next two decades. On the other hand, economists such as Boston Universitys James Bessen argue that automation often goes (46)_____ with the creation of new jobs. So which is it - new jobs or massive structural unemployment?
At this point, we can be certain that the Fourth Industrial Revolution will have a disruptive impact on employment, but no one can yet predict the scale of change. So, before we (47)_____ all the bad news, we should look at history, which suggests that technological change more often affects the nature of work, (48)_____ the opportunity to participate in work itself.
(Adapted from “Look to history to prepare for an automated future” by Johan Aurik, the Straitstimes)
Question 41: A. tamper B. blur
C. gloss
D. distort
Question 42: A. introduction B. creation
C. addition
D. extraction
Question 43: A. appositely B. profoundly
C. similarly
D. thoroughly
Question 44: A. suppose B. conclude
C. converge
D. disperse
Question 45: A. proximity to B. near
C. verge on
D. close to
Question 46: A. little by little B. all in all
C. side by side
D. hand in hand
Question 47: A. swallow B. expel
C. perpetuate
D. regurgitate
Question 48: A. rather than B. besides
C. except
D. due to

Part 2. For questions 49-56, read the following passage and choose the answer A, B, C or D that fits best according to the text. Mark your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
Although television was first regarded by many as “radio with pictures,” public reaction to the arrival of TV was strikingly different from that afforded the advent of radio. Radio in its early days was perceived as a technological wonder rather than a medium of cultural significance. The public quickly adjusted to radio broadcasting and either enjoyed its many programs or turned them off. Television, however, prompted a tendency to criticize and evaluate rather than a simple on-off response.
One aspect of early television that can never be recaptured is the combined sense of astonishment and glamour that greeted the medium during its infancy. At the midpoint of the 20th century, the public was properly agog about being able to see and hear actual events that were happening across town or hundreds of miles away. Relatively few people had sets in their homes, but popular fascination with TV was so pronounced that crowds would gather on the sidewalks in front of stores that displayed a working television set or two. The same thing happened in the typical tavern, where a set behind the bar virtually guaranteed a full house. Sports events that might attract a crowd of 30,000 or 40,000 suddenly, with the addition of TV cameras, had audiences numbering in the millions. By the end of television’s first decade, it was widely believed to have greater influence on American culture than parents, schools, churches, and government-institutions that had been until then the dominant influences on popular conduct. All were superseded by this one cultural juggernaut.
The 1950s was a time of remarkable achievement in television, but this was not the case for the entire medium. American viewers old enough to remember TV in the ’50s may fondly recall the shows of Sid Caesar, Jackie Gleason, Milton Berle, and Lucille Ball, but such high-quality programs were the exception; most of television during its formative years could be aptly
described, as it was by one Broadway playwright, as “amateurs playing at home movies.” The underlying problem was not a shortage of talented writers, producers, and performers; there were plenty, but they were already busily involved on the Broadway stage and in vaudeville, radio, and motion pictures. Consequently, television drew chiefly on a talent pool of individuals who had not achieved success in the more popular media and on the young and inexperienced who were years from reaching their potential. Nevertheless, the new medium ultimately proved so fascinating a technical novelty that in the early stages of its development the quality of its content seemed almost not to matter.
Fortunately, the dearth of talent was short-lived. Although it would take at least another decade before areas such as news and sports coverage approached their potential, more than enough excellence in the categories of comedy and drama emerged in the 1950s to deserve the attention of discriminating viewers. They are the most fondly remembered of the Golden Age genres for both emotional and intellectual reasons. Live TV drama was, in essence, the legitimate theatre’s contribution to the new medium; such shows were regarded as “prestige” events and were afforded respect accordingly. The comedies of the era are remembered for the same reason that comedy itself endures: human suffering and the ever-elusive pursuit of happiness render laughter a necessary palliative, and people therefore have a particular fondness for those who amuse them.
(Source: https://www.britannica.com/) Question 49: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Television development in comparison with radio
B. Television in the United States
C. Sport events on television
D. High-quality programs enjoyed by American
Question 50: The phrase “agog about” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by ________.
A. looking forward to B. keen on C. interested in D. involved in
Question 51: According to paragraph 2, why would the public gather on the sidewalks in front of stores?
A. Because they went to the tavern together. B. Because they had no work.
C. Because of their fascination with TV. D. Because of their sense of astonishment.
Question 52: Which of the following does the word “aptly” in paragraph 3 probably mean?
A. the whole of; as much as
B. in a way that is suitable or appropriate in the circumstances
C. at a slow speed; not quickly
D. happening in a short time or without delay
Question 53: According to paragraph 3, why is television described as “amateurs playing at home movies”?
A. Because writers, producers, and performers don’t have enough money to invest on television.
B. Because there are no talented writers, producers, and performers.
C. Because there are no high-quality programs.
D. Because talented writers, producers, and performers are busy with Broadway stage and in vaudeville, radio, and motion pictures.
Question 54: The word “dearth” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. lack B. plenty C. absence D. empty
Question 55: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Television in its early days was perceived as a technological wonder rather than a medium of cultural significance.
B. Television could draw chiefly on a talent pool of individuals who had achieved success in the more popular media.
C. Few people had TV set at home but they all enjoyed watching programs especially sports on TV.
D. The categories of comedy and drama emerged in the 1950s were not good enough to attract viewers. Question 56: The passage can probably extracted from which of the following?
A. History book B. Encyclopedia C. Textbook D. Daily newspaper

Part 3. For questions 57-64, read an extract from an article and choose the answer A, B, C or D that fits best according to the text. Mark your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
USING VIDEO GAMING IN EDUCATION
It has become conventional wisdom that spending too much time playing video games has a detrimental effect on children’s studies and their social development. However, some educationalists are now questioning this theory and are using video games as effective educational tools thus bridging the gap between recreational and educational activities.
Due to the sophisticated nature of today’s games, teachers are able to justify the inclusion of video and online games for many pedagogical reasons. There may, for example, be sociological, psychological, and ethical implications built into the gameplay. Harvey Edwards, who teaches IT classes in London, was one such educator who decided to use video games in his lessons. To do this, he chose Minecraft, an online game in which players create and develop imaginary worlds. He was somewhat uneasy about attempting such an unconventional approach, not because of some students’ unfamiliarity with the game but rather due to them not being able to make sense of what he was trying to do with it. He worried that it might interfere with his learners’ focus, but he couldn’t have been more surprised by the results.
Minecraft is an example of a ‘sandbox game’, in which gamers roam around and change a virtual world at will. Instead of having to pass through numbered levels to reach certain places, there’s full access from start to finish. The original version can be adapted to control which characters and content are left in. Each student can then be allocated tasks – such as housebuilding, locating items or problem-solving – which they must complete within the game. Elements of more general skills can be subtly incorporated into the lessons, such as online politeness and safety, teamwork and resolving differences. Edwards feels that presenting such lessons in the context of a game students probably already know and enjoy enables him to connect with them at greater depth, and in more motivational ways.
Bolstered by his success, Edwards introduced his approach to another school nearby. He recalls that the first couple of sessions didn’t live up to his expectations. Those who had played Minecraft before were keen for others to adopt their own style of play. Unsurprisingly, this assortment of styles and opinions as to how the game should proceed were far from harmonious. However, the sessions rapidly transformed into something more cohesive, with the learners driving the change. With minimal teacher input, they set about choosing leaders and established several teams, each with its own clearly-defined role. These teams, now party to clear common goals, willingly cooperated to ensure that their newborn world flourished, even when faced with the toughest of challenges.
‘Human’ inhabitants in a Minecraft ‘society’ are very primitive and wander around the imaginary world, waiting for guidance from players. [A] This dynamic bears a resemblance to traditional education, an observation highlighted by Martina Williams, one of the leaders of the group. [B] ‘Through the game, we were no longer passive learners in the classroom, being told what and how to learn, but active participants in our own society. [C] The leaders, meanwhile, had a vision for their virtual world as a whole, encouraging everyone to play their part in achieving the group’s goals. [D] Through creating their own characters and using these to build their own ‘world’, students will have gained some experiential understanding of societal structure and how communities work.
But not everyone is convinced by video games’ potential academic value. While many progressive commentators cite extensive evidence to maintain that video games encourage collaboration and build problem-solving skills, more traditional factions continue to insist they are a distraction that do not merit inclusion in any curriculum. Even less evangelical cynics, who may grudgingly acknowledge games have some educational benefit, assert that this is only the case in the hands of creative educators. However, the accusation most often levelled at video games is that they detract from the social aspect of the classroom, particularly taking part in discussions. Dr Helen Conway, an educational researcher, argues that video games can be used to promote social activities. ‘Students become animated talking about the game and how to improve their gameplaying and problem-solving skills,’ she says. ‘I find it strange, this image that many people have,’ Conway says. Children are often totally detached from their peers when undertaking more traditional activities, like reading books, but we never suggest that books are harmful because they’re a solitary experience.
Question 57: The first time Edwards used a game in his classes, he was ________.
A. anxious that he had chosen the wrong one for learners to play
B. convinced that learners would see the reasons for playing it
C. sure that his reasons for getting learners to play it were valid
D. convinced that learners would realise why he wanted them to play it
Question 58: The writer suggests that Minecraft is a good choice of educational game because ________.
A. any number of learners can use it simultaneously
B. players can develop their skills in a step-by-step way
C. teachers can remove any inappropriate material
D. gamers can create educative tasks whilst playing it
Question 59: The word ‘subtly’ in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. ingeniously B. ingenuously C. haphazardly D. intricately
Question 60: Which of the following words in the fourth paragraph is used to convey a feeling of approval?
A. harmonious B. keen C. newborn D. driving
Question 61: Where does this sentence belong to in the fifth paragraph?
Each group member had ideas as to how their function should develop.
A. [A] B. [D] C. [B] D. [C]
Question 62: In the fifth paragraph, the writer draws a comparison between a Minecraft ‘society’ and ________.
A. relationships within the group as they played
B. the way in which countries organise themselves
C. typical students in a school environment
D. how leadership operates in different situations
Question 63: In the sixth paragraph, the writer feels that critics of video games in education ________.
A. make accurate observations about teachers who use them
B. are unwilling to admit that using them in class has benefits
C. acknowledge the drawbacks of more traditional teaching methods
D. use flawed research to support their objections to using them
Question 64: Which of the following best describes the authors attitude towards the application of gaming into education?
A. neutral B. cynical C. supportive D. satirical

SECTION IV. WRITING

Part 1. For questions 65-72, mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 65: They left their home early. They didn’t want to miss the first train. A. They left their home early so as to not miss the first train.
B. They left their home early for fear that they wouldn’t miss the first train.
C. They left their home early so as not to miss the first train.
D. They left their home early in order that not to miss the first train.
Question 66: No one but the experts was able to realize that the painting was an imitation. It greatly resembled the original.
A. The painting looked so much like the authentic one that only the experts could tell it wasn’t genuine.
B. It was hard for ordinary people to judge between the fake painting and the real one.
C. It was almost impossible for amateurs to realize that the painting was not authentic, though the experts could judge it quite easily.
D. It was obvious that only a person with great talent could fake a painting so successfully.
Question 67: Kate immediately phoned her boyfriend and told him the unexpected news. She was surprised at it.
A. Surprised to hear the unexpected news, Kate phoned her boyfriend and told him immediately.
B. Kate immediately phoned her boyfriend and told him, surprising by the unexpected news.
C. Surprised as she was to hear the news, Kate phoned her boyfriend and told him immediately.
D. Kate immediately phoned her boyfriend and told him the unexpected news, which she was surprised.

Question 68: You criticized your son before his friends left. It was wrong of you to do that.
A. If you had criticized your son after his friends had left, he wouldnt be so upset now.
B. Your son must have been embarrassed when you criticized him in front of his friends.
C. You should have delayed criticizing your son until after his friends had gone.
D. You must be careful not to embarrass your son when he is with his friends.
Question 69: She gave in her notice. She planned to start her new job in January.
A. She gave in her notice, plan to start her new job in January.
B. She gave in her notice with a view to starting her new job in January.
C. Her notice was given in with an aim to start her new job in January.
D. Her notice was given in order for her to start her new job in January.
Question 70: Peter told us about his leaving the school. He did it on his arrival at the meeting.
A. Only after his leaving the school did Peter inform us of his arrival at the meeting.
B. No sooner had Peter arrived at the meeting than he told us about his leaving the school.
C. Not until Peter told us that he would leave the school did he arrive at the meeting.
D. Hardly had Peter informed us about his leaving the school when he arrived at the meeting. Question 71: The new restaurant looks good. However, it seems to have few customers
A. The new restaurant would have more customers if it looked better.
B. If it had a few more customers, the new restaurant would look better.
C. In order to get more business, the new restaurant should improve its appearance.
D. In spite of its appearance, the new restaurant does not appear to attract much business.
Question 72: The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice.
A. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice.
B. The plan is as impractical as it is ingenious.
C. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice.
D. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice.
Part 2. For questions 73-80, mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 73: “Absence makes the heart grow fonder.” A. Absence makes us grow older.
B. Our heart needs absence to grow.
C. Being apart from someone you love makes you love them more.
D. Being apart from someone you love makes you love them less.
Question 74: He was such a wet blanket at the party tonight!
A. He spoiled other peoples pleasure at the party.
B. He bought a wet blanket to the party.
C. He was wet through when going home from the party.
D. He made people at the party wet through.
Question 75: “What a novel idea for the farewell party” said Nam to the monitor.
A. Nam exclaimed with admiration at the novel idea for the farewell party of the monitor.
B. Nam said that it was a novel idea of the monitor for the farewell party.
C. Nam admired the novel idea for the farewell party.
D. Nam thought over the novel idea of the farewell party.
Question 76: Even if the job market is not stable, those who persist will be able to land jobs eventually.
A. When it’s hard to find a job, jobs on land are even harder.
B. Only persistent job seekers can find jobs.
C. In land jobs are only available to persistent jobs applicants.
D. Patient people will secure jobs even in an unstable job market.
Trang
Question 77: There is no doubt that Martin is the best candidate for the job.
A. Martin is by all means the best candidate for the job.
B. Without question, Martin is the best candidate for the job.
C. In all likelihood, Martin is the best candidate for the job.
D. Quite by chance, Martin is the best candidate for the job.
Question 78: After what he did, he deserves to be put away for life.
A. He should be pensioned forever because of his good life.
B. He deserves to be praised for his whole life.
C. His wrong doings deserve to be forgiven.
D. He should be imprisoned for what he has done.
Question 79: I know I can convince Dave that Im right about that matter.
A. I know I can bring Dave around my way of thinking on this matter.
B. I know I can bring Dave round to my way of thinking on this matter. C. I know I can bring Dave up to my way of thinking on this matter
D. I know I can get Dave round my way of thinking on that matter.
Question 80: We’re still hesitating about which school our son ought to go to.
A. We haven’t yet decided where we should send our son to school.
B. We are not sure whether we should let our son choose a school for himself.
C. We won’t send our son to any school unless we are certain that it is the one we want.
D. We had great difficulty deciding upon which school our son should attend.

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TRANSCRIPT
PART 2.
Presenter: The modern answer to the office worker’s sedentary lifestyle is to sign up at a gym. Such is the demand that 18% of us are members of a gym. With me tonight is Mark Stanwick, press officer of the National Fitness Association. Mark, welcome to the programme.
Mark: Thank you, Kate.
Presenter: Now, you were saying before that if someone is considering joining a gym they should first do some serious research rather than just choosing the one which is closest to their home. What is the reason for that?
Mark: Well, Kate, there are many different services gym can offer. Do you want a posers paradise in which to show off your muscles? Do you want a gym that hosts varied classes, such as aerobics and yoga? Are you looking for one that has vibrant social scene? Or do you want to keep your head down and just get on with losing some weight in peace? Perhaps you want staff to provide you with motivation and encouragement? All of these questions must be answered by your initial research. If you end up in the wrong kind of gym, you will lose motivation very quickly indeed and simply stop going and all your money and effort will go down the drain.
Presenter: I see. So what are the things I should be looking out for?
Mark: Well, before calling in on a gym, ring to see if you can book a good time for a walk round with one of the instructors. Gyms are normally busiest between 5pm and 7pm on weekdays. Although you do want to see the gym in action at a time when you might be attending, you will want to first view all the facilities without sweaty people constantly pushing past you. Also have a quick look at the car park to see how busy it is before stepping through the doors. Notice the general atmosphere of the gym. Do the instructors look extremely busy? Is there loud music playing? Does it smell fresh or stale? In a nutshell, is it the kind of place you want to visit regularly?
Presenter: I see. So suppose I’ve found my kind of gym – now it’s time to join?
Mark: Not just yet – there are a few things to talk about with them. You will probably already know what the monthly cost of being a member is, but what does that include? Does it include everything, or are services such as yoga classes and personal trainers going to cost more? Do you get a fresh towel each time you go or will that cost extra? Are lockers in the changing rooms free or are you going to have to remember to bring loose change every time you exercise?
Presenter: Right. What if I have to sign a contract?
Mark: It is best to take home any contract that you may have to sign and go through it carefully, looking for what happens if you leave or if the gym goes bust and moves. Be suspicious of a gym that is reluctant to let you take away a contract to look over and distrust it even if it is determined to secure your signature on your first visit. And avoid “life memberships”. You might move town at some point or, at least, want to change your gym.
Presenter: Wow. All these things to think about. I think most people are a bit uncertain about joining when they think it’s simple. After today they may decide not to bother at all.
Mark: {laughs}. It’s not that bad, really. You know, joining a gym is a lifestyle change. If you do it right it can make a great difference – you’ll be healthier and happier every day. So don’t let small difficulties discourage you – it’s really worth it. Go for it, just make sure your gym is a place where you want to be, and not a place you’ll never want to see again after a few visits.
ĐÁP ÁN
1
A
11
C
21
A
31
D
41
B
51
C
61
D
71
D
2
A
12
B
22
D
32
D
42
D
52
B
62
C
72
D
3
C
13
C
23
A
33
C
43
B
53
D
63
B
73
C
4
B
14
A
24
C
34
D
44
C
54
A
64
C
74
A
5
A
15
B
25
B
35
C
45
D
55
C
65
C
75
A
6
B
16
C
26
A
36
A
46
D
56
B
66
A

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