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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
TỈNH QUẢNG NAM
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH THPT
NĂM HỌC: 2021-2022
(Đề gồm 09 trang, từ 1-9))

Môn thi : TIẾNG ANH 10 (CHUYÊN)
Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi : 22/3/2022
SECTION A: LISTENING (40 points)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
- Bài nghe gồm 3 phần (Mở đầu và kết thúc bằng tín hiệu nhạc).
- Mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 2 lần.
- Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh đã có trong bài nghe.
PART 1: You will hear an interview with someone whose daughters are appearing in a show in London. For questions 1- 5, write the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (10 pts)
1. What does Jackie say about Olivia’s role in Annie?
A. Olivia had difficulty learning such a big role.
B. Olivia had always wanted to have such a big role.
C. Olivia hadn’t expected to get such a big role.
D. Olivia had expected to get such a big role.
2. Jackie says that Olivia’s performance in Annie ___________.
A. did not contrast with her normal personality
B. did not surprise other members of her family
C. was helped by advice from an agent
D. contrasted with her normal personality
3. What happened at the first auditions for The Sound of Music?
A. Jackie’s children were told they would have to come back the next day.
B. The family arrived later than they had been told to arrive.
C. There were so many people that the family considered leaving.
D. There were not many people to be considered leaving.
4. At the final audition, ___________.
A. neither of the girls appeared to be nervous
B. Jackie told them they looked right for the parts
C. both girls made jokes about the event
D. both girls appeared to be nervous
5. How have the girls reacted to getting the parts?
A. They are a bit concerned that their lives will change.
B. The achievement has made them more self-confident.
C. Their behaviour has remained the same as it was before.
D. Their behaviour hasn’t remained the same as it was before.
PART 2: You will hear an interview with a representative of a wildlife park called Paradise Wildlife Park. For questions 6 – 15, complete the sentences, using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer on your answer sheet. (20 points)

PARADISE WILDLIFE PARK
Project Life Lion is connected with diseases spread by (6)_________ in Africa. The Park has created its own (7)_________ system, and other organizations use it. A wide variety of (8)_________ events (e.g. barbecues) are held at the Park. For charity events, the Park will provide cheap tickets and (9) ________. The Park’s sister company gives people a chance to be a (10)________. People paying to adopt an animal get a (11)_________, a photograph, information about the animal and a free ticket for two people. People who visit the Park more than (12)________ in a year benefit from having a season ticket. When the weather is cold, visitors can still enjoy using the (13)________. One of the Experience Days involves being an (14)_________ for a day. The Park is looking for people to do customer service and (15)_________ work.
PART 3: You will hear an announcement about a competition. For questions 16–20, answer the questions. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS for each answer on your answer sheet. (10 pts)
16. According to the announcement, what could an engineer transform in Africa?
17. How long must your idea be explained?
18. What do people who want to start a business offer?
19. Before you phone, what may it be a good idea to prepare?
20. To win, what must you show for your idea?
SECTION B: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (50 points)
PART 1. For questions 21-40, write the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (20 pts)
21. It really makes my _________ boil when I see people driving too carelessly.
A. heart B. head C. face D. blood
22. He told me I’d won the lottery but I knew he was just pulling my _________.
A. nose B. leg C. hair D. arm
23. I’ll just ________ some ice to go in our drinks.
A. squeeze B. crush C. squash D. compact
24. Out ________ when the bell rang.
A. run the children B. do the children run
C. ran the children D. did the children run
25. Mrs. Mackenzie waited for the class to _________ before she continued.
A. bring up B. settle down C. pass away D. bring on
26. First, _________ the onions in a little vegetable oil until crispy brown.
A. fry B. bake C. grill D. boil
27. Inviting both Doug and Shirley to the party is a _________ for disaster.
A. prescription B. receipt C. recipe D. bill
28. I’m in two ________ about whether to go to the wedding or not.
A. brains B. thoughts C. minds D. heads
29. All the town’s drinking water comes from a _________ a few miles away.
A. puddle B. pond C. bowl D. reservoir
30. I hope the government reduces the amount of ________ tape required to start a new company.
A. green B. blue C. yellow D. red
31. In the United States, _________ is the most concentrated is New Orleans.
A. French influence the city B. the city where French influence
C. where the city influences French D. where the French influence the city
32. Most people who work in the center of London ________ from the suburbs every morning.
A. commute B. deliver C. connect D. spread
33. The customer was so annoyed that he ________ the receipt in front of the manager.
A. ripped up B. took over C. tried on D. wore out
34. There’s so much technical _________ in this manual that I can’t really understand it.
A. slang B. jargon C. tongue D. speech
35. Why do I always _________ the short straw?
A. draw B. pull C. drag D. pluck
36. ________ for director must have surprised you.
A. Your being nominated B. You nominated
C. You’re being nominated D. Your nominating
37. People who are telling the truth about the properties _______ should be given prizes for honesty.
A. which sell B. that selling C. they are selling D. were sold
38. The Pikes are _________ people in the town.
A. the much richest B. the by far richest C. the far richest D. by far the richest
39. Nobody has any firm information, so we can only _________ on what caused the accident.
A. guess B. contemplate C. speculate D. assume
40. I couldn’t decide what to write about when I suddenly _________ upon the idea of doing something on writer’s block.
A. thought B. chanced C. hit D. arrive
PART 2: For questions from 41 to 50, read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the lines to form a word that fits in the gap in the same line. There is an example at the beginning (0). (20 pts)
Write your answers IN CAPITAL LETTERS on the separate answer sheet.
Example: 0. STRAIGHTFORWARD
SNOW-KITING: AN ALTERNATIVE FORM OF SKIING?
Skiing is one of the most (0) _____ forms of exercise there is. It offers STRAIGHT
the participant, whether a novice or an old hand at the sport, a great
deal of excitement and (41) ______, plus lots of fresh air. But skiing does PLEASE
have its various (42) ___________. When it comes to guaranteeing a ADVANTAGE
profitable day’s downhill skiing, there are two essential ingredients.
You need hills, or (43) _______ mountains, in order to get the most out PREFER
of this (44) _______; then you need a fairly generous covering of snow. PURSUE
(45) ________, there are usually snow machines to supplement FORTUNE
any natural (46) _________ in the supply of this second DEFICIENT
(47) ________, and help may now be at hand too for those lacking in REQUIRE
the first, through the sport of snow-kiting.
Snow-kiting is a windy offshoot of kite-surfing, an established
watersport. By harnessing their skis to an inflated kite, snow-kiters
can move at speed across even the very flattest of landscapes. All
they need is a (48) ________ wind, then they can enjoy all the REASON
exhilaration of a fast downhill ski run. In fact, partly because of
(49) ________ objects such as electricity pylons and trees, the best HAZARD
location for snow-kiting is not a ski resort at all - but a vast
(50) ________ plain. Skiing may never be the same again. INTERRUPT
PART 3: For questions from 51 to 60, write the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (10 pts)
51. Don’t let your colleagues grind you ____.
A. over B. on C. down D. off
52. He is always griping ____ the people at work.
A. about B. for C. from D. with
53. It is said that Obama swept ____ the victory in 2008.
A. to B. at C. in D. on
54. I’d like to come on ____ that question later.
A. in B. for C. about D. to
55. I don’t know of any vacancies in the company but I will ask _____.
A. for B. with C. around D. round
56. People believe that majority of people hold no brief ____ either side in this war.
A. about B. for C. against D. between
57. According to the report, the long-term future of space program hangs ____ the balance.
A. into B. around C. against D. in
58. If you want to play an instrument well, you’ve got to stick ____ it.
A. for B. at C. over D. of
59. The policy is to integrate children _____ special needs into ordinary schools.
A. for B. between C. among D. with
60. It is ashamed of you to walk all ____ your parents.
A. over B. against C. round D. down
SECTION C: READING (60 points)
PART 1. For questions 61 – 70, read the article below and then decide which answer best fits each space. Indicate your answer on the separate answer sheet. (15 points)
WE REALLY CAN TELL IF WE ARE BEING WATCHED
Stories about how people somehow know when they are being watched have been going around for years. However, few attempts have been made to investigate the phenomenon scientifically. Now, with the completion of the largest ever study of the so-called staring effect, there is impressive evidence that this is a recognizable and (61) _______ sixth sense. The study (62) ________ hundreds of children. For the experiments, they sat with their eyes covered so they could not see, and with their backs to other children, who were told to either stare at them or look away. Time and time again the results showed that the children who could not see were able to tell when they were being stared at. In a (63) ________ of more than 18,000 trials (64) ________ worldwide, the children (65) _______ sensed when they were being watched almost 70% of the time. The experiment was repeated with the added precaution of putting the children who were being watched outside the room, (66) _______ from the starers by the windows. This was done just in case there was some (67) ______ going on with the children telling each other whether they were looking or not. This prevented the possibility of sounds being (68) ______ between the children. The results, through less impressive, were more or less the same. Dr Sheldrake, the biologist who designed the study, believes that the results are (69) _______ enough to find out through further experiments precisely how the staring effect might actually (70) _______.
61. A. accepted B. genuine C. received D. sure
62. A. involved B. contained C. comprised D. enclosed
63. A. sum B. collection C. mass D. total
64. A. worked over B. worked through C. carried on D. carried out
65. A. correctly B. exactly C. thoroughly D. perfectly
66. A. separated B. parted C. split D. divided
67. A. pretending B. lying C. cheating D. deceiving
68. A. delivered B. transported C. transmitted D. distributed
69. A. satisfying B. convincing C. concluding D. persuading
70. A. be looked at B. come about C. set out D. be held up
PART 2: For the questions from 71 to 80, complete the following article by writing each missing word on your answer sheet. Use ONLY ONE WORD for each space. (15 points)
Plants and animals in the temperate zones respond in various ways to the amount of daylight in 24-hour periods. This response to day length is called photo periodism. It controls many activities, (71) _________ them the migration of birds, the hibernation of animals, and the flowering of plants. The (72) _________ to respond to day length is linked to an endogenous, or inner, light-sensitive circadian rhythm.
(73) _________ the temperature zones, day lengths during the natural 24-hour cycle vary (74) _________ the reasons. In winter and spring, the period of light lengthens, in summer and autumn, it (75) _________. Organisms in these (76) _________ undergo alternate 12-hour phases of light sensitivity. During one 12-hour phase, decreasing exposure to light induces a short-day reaction. For example, deciduous trees under the influence of the shorter days of autumn drop their (77) _________. During the other 12-hour phase, increasing exposure to light induces a long-day reaction. Deciduous trees grow leaves again (78) _________ the lengthening days of spring. (79) _________ this description has been greatly simplified, it indicates that through their sensitivity to changes in the duration of light, living things can measure day length to determine the reason and the time spans within a reason.
The relationship of this “time sense” to circadian rhythms is easily demonstrated. Florists, for example, often “trick” greenhouse plants into (80) _________ blossoms out of season by exposing them to unreasonable periods of artificial light.

PART 3: Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 81 to 90. (15 points)
LIGHTS, CAMERA, ACTION MAN
Travel journalist Richard Madden reports on his first trip with a camera crew
It was books that first captured my imagination about faraway places. TV travelogues always seemed the poor relation to the classic written accounts, although of course the pictures were rather better. And then there was the issue of authenticity. All those pretentious theatrical types dying of thirst in the desert, as if we didnt realize there was a camera crew on hand to cater for their every need. These days programme-makers know that the audience is more sophisticated and the presence of the camera is acknowledged. But can a journey with filming equipment ever be anything other than a cleverly constructed fiction?
I recently got the chance to find out, when I was asked to present two one-hour programmes for an adventure travel series. The project was the brainchild of the production company Trans-Atlantic Films, which wanted the series presented by writers and adventurers, as well as TV professionals. My sole qualification was as a journalist specializing in adventure travel. However, I was thought to have on-screen potential.
The first programme was filmed in Costa Rica. Within 24 hours of my arrival, I realised that this was going to be very different from my usual one man and his laptop expeditions. For a start, there were five of us - director, cameraman, sound recordist, producer and presenter. And then there was the small matter of £100,000 worth of equipment. I soon realised that the director, Peter Macpherson, was a vastly experienced adventure film-maker. In his case, the term adventure meant precisely that. Made a film with X, he would say (normally a famous mountaineer or skier), before describing a death-defying sequence at the top of a glacier in Alaska or hang-gliding off the Angel Falls in Venezuela. Invariably, these reminiscences would end with the words: “Had a great deal of respect for X. Dead now, sadly...”
Part of the brief for the series was to put the presenter in unusual situations and see how he or she coped. One such sequence was the night we spent in the rainforest canopy near the Rincón de la Vieja National Park in Guanacaste province. I dont have a head for heights and would make a poor rock-climber, so my distress is real enough as the camera catches me dangling on a rope some 30 metres up, well short of the canopy platform.
Ironically, it was the presence of the camera, looking down on me from above, that gave me the impetus for the final push to the top. By this time, Id learnt how sequences were cut together and realised that one last effort was required. I had to struggle to stay coherent while the camera swooped within a few millimeters of my face for my reaction. In the end, it was a magical experience, heightened all the more by the sounds of the forest - a family of howler monkeys in a nearby tree, amplified through the sound recordists headphones.
Learning how to establish a rapport with the camera is vital and it took me a while to think of it as a friend rather than a judge and jury. The most intimidating moments were when Peter strolled up to me, saying that the light would only be right for another 10 minutes, and that he needed a link from one sequence to another. The brief was simple. It needed to be 30 seconds long, sum up my feelings, be informative, well-structured and, most important of all, riveting to watch. Ready to go in about five minutes? he would say breezily.
I soon discovered that the effect of the camera on what was going on around us was far less intrusive than I had imagined. After a first flurry of curiosity, people usually lost interest and let us get on with our job. We were also flexible enough to be spontaneous. Our trip coincided with an 80 per cent solar eclipse, a rare event anywhere in the world. We were in a village called Santa Elena and captured the whole event on camera. The carnival atmosphere was infectious and made a welcome addition to our shooting schedule.
81. One thing the writer used to dislike about travel programmes on TV was _________.
A. the repetitive nature of many of them
B. the dull images that they frequently contained
C. their lack of respect for the intelligence of the viewers
D. their tendency to copy the style of famous written accounts
82. What reason is given for the writer becoming involved in making TV travel programmes?
A. Other peoples belief that he might be suited to appearing on them.
B. His own desire to discover whether it was possible to make good ones.
C. His own belief that it was natural for him to move from journalism to TV.
D. A shortage of writers and adventurers willing to take part in them.
83. Shortly after arriving in Costa Rica, the writer became aware that _________.
A. the director had a reputation that was undeserved
B. he would probably dislike working as part of a team rather than alone
C. he would probably get on well with the director personally
D. his role in the filming would be likely to involve real danger
84. Which of the following can be best replaced the word “reminiscences”?
A. memories B. experiences C. collections D. imaginations
85. The writer uses the sequence filmed in the National Park as an example of _________.
A. something he had been worried about before any filming started
B. the sort of challenge that presenters were intended to face in the series
C. something he was expected to be unable to deal with
D. the technical difficulties involved in making films in certain places
86. What does the writer say about the last part of the sequence in the National Park?
A. It taught him a lot about the technical aspects of film-making.
B. He was encouraged to complete it when he looked up at the camera.
C. It changed his whole attitude towards doing dangerous things.
D. He was unable to say anything that made sense at this time.
87. According to the passage, the word swooped in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. flew downward quickly B. jumped over quickly
C. moved forward slowly D. drew back slowly
88. In paragraph 6, the writer says that he found it particularly difficult to _________.
A. understand what was required of him for a link
B. change things he was going to do at very short notice
C. accept certain advice given to him about presenting a film
D. meet certain demands the director made on him
89. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The writer had only one qualification for a journalist.
B. Peter Macpherson was the adventure film-maker and the director.
C. Their trip coincided with a usual event, the solar eclipse.
D. The programme in Costa Rica was not similar to his usual expeditions.
90. What does the writer use the experience in Santa Elena as an example of?
A. Something they filmed although they had not planned to.
B. The friendly way in which they were treated by the local people.
C. Something they did purely for their own enjoyment.
D. The kind of thing that viewers like to see in travel films.
PART 4. Read the passage and do the following tasks. (15 points)
“FOR THE STRENGTH OF THE PACK IS THE WOLF, AND THE STRENGTH OF THE WOLF IS THE PACK.”
Rudyard Kipling, The Law for the Wolves
A wolf pack is an extremely well-organised family group with a well-defined social structure and a clear-cut code of conduct. Every wolf has a certain place and function within the pack and every member has to do its fair share of the work. The supreme leader is a very experienced wolf – the alpha – who has dominance over the whole pack. It is the protector and decision-maker and directs the others as to where, when and what to hunt. However, it does not lead the pack into the hunt, for it is far too valuable to risk being injured or killed. That is the responsibility of the beta wolf, who assumes second place in the hierarchy of the pack. The beta takes on the role of enforcer – fighter or ‘tough guy’– big, strong and very aggressive. It is both the disciplinarian of the pack and the alpha’s bodyguard.
The tester, a watchful and distrustful character, will alert the alpha if it encounters anything suspicious while it is scouting around looking for signs of trouble. It is also the quality controller, ensuring that the others are deserving of their place in the pack. It does this by creating a situation that tests their bravery and courage, by starting a fight, for instance. At the bottom of the social ladder is the omega wolf, subordinate and submissive to all the others, but often playing the role of peacemaker by intervening in an intra-pack squabble and defusing the situation by clowning around. Whereas the tester may create conflict, the omega is more likely to resolve it.
The rest of the pack is made up of mid- to low-ranking non-breeding adults and the immature offspring of the alpha and its mate. The size of the group varies from around six to ten members or more, depending on the abundance of food and numbers of the wolf population in general.
Wolves have earned themselves an undeserved reputation for being ruthless predators and a danger to humans and livestock. The wolf has been portrayed in fairy tales and folklore as a very bad creature, killing any people and other animals it encounters. However, the truth is that wolves only kill to eat, never kill more than they need, and rarely attack humans unless their safety is threatened in some way. It has been suggested that hybrid wolf-dogs or wolves suffering from rabies are actually responsible for many of the historical offences as well as more recent incidents.
Wolves hunt mainly at night. They usually seek out large herbivores, such as deer, although they also eat smaller animals, such as beavers, hares and rodents, if these are obtainable. Some wolves in western Canada are known to fish for salmon. The alpha wolf picks out a specific animal in a large herd by the scent it leaves behind. The prey is often a very young, old or injured animal in poor condition. The alpha signals to its hunters which animal to take down and when to strike by using tail movements and the scent from a gland at the tip of its spine above the tail.
Wolves kill to survive. Obviously, they need to eat to maintain strength and health but the way they feast on the prey also reinforces social order. Every member of the family has a designated spot at the carcass and the alpha directs them to their places through various ear postures: moving an ear forward, flattening it back against the head or swiveling it around. The alpha wolf eats the prized internal organs while the beta is entitled to the muscle-meat of the rump and thigh, and the omega and other low ranks are assigned the intestinal contents and less desirable parts such as the backbone and ribs.
The rigid class structure in a wolf pack entails frequent displays of supremacy and respect. When a higher-ranking wolf approaches, a lesser-ranking wolf must slow down, lower itself, and pass to the side with head averted to show deference; or, in an extreme act of passive submission, it may roll onto its back, exposing its throat and belly. The dominant wolf stands over it, stiff-legged and tall, asserting its superiority and its authority in the pack.
Questions 91 – 96
Write the correct letter A, B, C or D in boxes 91–96 on your answer sheet.
You may use any letter A, B, C or D more than once.
Classify the following statements as referring to
A the alpha wolf
B the beta wolf
C the tester wolf
D the omega wolf
91. It is at the forefront of the pack when it makes a kill.
92. It tries to calm tensions and settle disputes between pack members.
93. It is the wolf in charge and maintains control over the pack.
94. It warns the leader of potential danger.
95. It protects the leader of the pack.
96. It sets up a trial to determine whether a wolf is worthy of its status in the pack.
Questions 97–100
Do the following statements agree with the information given in passage?
In boxes 97–100 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

97. Crossbred wolves or sick wolves are most likely to blame for attacks on people.
98. The wolf pack leader identifies a particular target for attack by its smell.
99. When wolves attack a herd, they go after the healthiest animal.
100. A low-ranking wolf must show submission or dominant wolf will attack it.

SECTION D: WRITING (50 points)
PART 1: Read the following passage and use your own words to summarise it on your answer sheet. Your summary should be about 140 words long. (20 pts)
PSYCHOLOGY AND PERSONALITY ASSESSMENT
Our daily lives are largely made up of contacts with other people, during which we are constantly making judgments of their personalities and accommodating our behaviour to them in accordance with these judgments. A casual meeting of neighbours on the street, an employer giving instructions to an employee, a mother telling her children how to behave, a journey in a train where strangers eye one another without exchanging a word – all these involve mutual interpretations of personal qualities.
Success in many vocations largely depends on skill in sizing up people. It is important not only to such professionals as the clinical psychologist, the psychiatrist or the social worker, but also to the doctor or lawyer in dealing with their clients, the businessman trying to outwit his rivals, the salesman with potential customers, the teacher with his pupils, not to speak of the pupils judging their teacher. Social life, indeed, would be impossible if we did not, to some extent, understand, and react to the motives and qualities of those we meet; and clearly we are sufficiently accurate for most practical purposes, although we also recognize that misinterpretations easily arise particularly on the part of others who judge us!
Errors can often be corrected as we go along. But whenever we are pinned down to a definite decision about a person, which cannot easily be revised through his “feed-back”, the inadequacies of our judgments become apparent. The hostess who wrongly thinks that the Smiths and the Joneses will get on well together can do little to retrieve the success of her party. A school or a business may be saddled for years with an undesirable member of staff, because the selection committee which interviewed him for a quarter of an hour misjudged his personality.
PART 2: Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic on your answer sheet: (30 pts)
Nowadays, the way many people interact with each other has changed because of technology.
In what way has technology affected the types of relationships people make?
Has this become a positive or negative development?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
--The end—
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
TỈNH QUẢNG NAM
KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH THPT
NĂM HỌC: 2021-2022
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề gồm 09 trang)

Môn thi : TIẾNG ANH 10 (CHUYÊN)
Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi : 22/3/2022
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
SECTION A: LISTENING (40 points)
PART 1: You will hear an interview with someone whose daughters are appearing in a show in London. For questions 1- 5, write the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (5 x 2 = 10 pts)
1. C
2. D
3. A
4. A
5. C
PART 2: You will hear an interview with a representative of a wildlife park called Paradise Wildlife Park. For questions 6 – 15, complete the sentences, using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. (10 x 2 = 20 points)
Your answers:
6. domestic dogs
7. E/environmental M/management
8. corporate
9. competition prizes
10. radio presenter
11. certificate
12. five times / 5 times
13. indoor play area
14. animal keeper
15. voluntary
PART 3: You will hear an announcement about a competition. For questions 16 – 20, answer the questions. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS for each answer. (5 x 2 = 10 pts)
Your answers:
16. Sanitation
17. A maximum of 1/one minute.
18. (a new) product or service
19. A script
20. A lot of/great passion
SECTION B: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points)
PART 1. Write the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (20 x 1 = 20 pts)
Your answers:
21. D
22. B
23. B
24. C
25. B
26. A
27. C
28. C
29. D
30. D
31. B
32. A
33. A
34. B
35. A
36. A
37. C
38. D
39. C
40. C
PART 2
For questions 41 – 50, read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the lines to form a word that fits in the gap in the same line. (10 x 2 = 20 points)
Write your answers IN CAPITAL LETTERS on the separate answer sheet.
41.
PLEASURE
42. DISADVANTAGES
43. PREFERABLY
44.
PURSUIT
45.
FORTUNATELY
46.DEFICIENCY/
DEFICIENCIES
47.
REQUIREMENT
48.
REASONABLE
49.
HAZARDOUS
50.
UNINTERRUPTED
PART 3: Write the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (10 x 1 = 10 points)
Your answers:
51. C
52. A
53. A
54. D
55. C
56. B
57. D
58. B
59. D
60. A
SECTION C: READING (60 points)
PART 1: For questions 61 – 70, read the article below and then decide which answer best fits each space. (10 x 1,5= 15 points)
Your answers:
61. B
62. A
63. D
64. D
65. A
66. A
67. C
68. C
69. B
70. B
PART 2: For the questions from 1 to 10, complete the following article by writing each missing word. Use ONLY ONE WORD for each space. (10 x 1,5= 15 points)
Your answers:
71. among
72. ability
73. In
74. with
75. shortens
76. zones
77. leaves
78. during
79. Although
80. producing
PART 3: Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C, or D on the following box to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 81 to 90. (10 x 1,5= 15 points)
Your answers:
81. C
82. A
83. D
84. A
85. B
86. B
87. A
88. D
89. C
90. A
PART 4 (10 x 1,5= 15 points)
Write the correct letter A, B, C or D in boxes 91–96. (6 x 1,5= 9 points)
91. B
92. D
93. A
94. C
95. B
96. C
Questions 97–100
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage?
In boxes 97–100, write TRUE, FALSE, or NOT GIVEN (4 x 1,5= 6 points)
97. TRUE
98. TRUE
99. FALSE
100. NOT GIVEN
SECTION D: WRITING (50 points)
PART 1: Read the following passage and use your own words to summarise it. Your summary should be about 140 words long. (20 pts)
- The summary MUST cover the following points:
The role of personality judgements
How personality assessment enhances us
Mistakes in personality assessment
* Developed during interactions (Gradually developed through the course of interactions with other human beings)
* Shape the way we behave
* Influence connections between people
* Career: important to a wide spectrum of vocations
* Social life: fundamental
* Helps determine our purposes
* Inadequacies of our judgements (due to insistence on unfixable decisions about a person) => consequences (examples)
- The summary MUST NOT contain personal opinions.

Language use (5 points)
The summary should:
* show attempts to convey the main ideas of the original text by means of paraphrasing (structural and lexical use),
* demonstrate correct use of grammatical structures, vocabulary, and mechanics (spelling, punctuations,...),
* maintain coherence, cohesion, and unity throughout (by means of linkers and transitional devices).
Penalties
* A penalty of 1 point to 2 points will be given to personal opinions found in the summary.
* A penalty of 1 point to 2 points will be given to any summary with more than 30% of words copied from the original.
A penalty of 1 point will be given to any summary longer than 155 words or shorter than 120 words.
PART 2: Write a composition on the following topic: (30 pts)
Nowadays, the way many people interact with each other has changed because of technology.
In what way has technology affected the types of relationships people make?
Has this become a positive or negative development?
The mark given to part 2 is based on the following criteria:
1. Task achievement/ fulfillment (15 points)
a. All requirements of the task are sufficiently addressed.
b. Ideas are adequately supported and elaborated with relevant and reliable explanations, examples, evidence, personal experience, etc.
2. Organization (8 points)
a. Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and unity.
b. The essay is well-structured:
* Introduction is presented with a clear thesis statement introducing the points to be developed.
* Body paragraphs develop the points introduced with unity, coherence, and cohesion. Each body paragraph must have a topic sentence and supporting details and examples when necessary.
* Conclusion summarises the main points and states personal opinions (prediction, recommendation, consideration,…) on the issue.
3. Language use (5 points)
a. Demonstration of a variety of topic-related vocabulary
b. Excellent use and control of grammatical structures
4. Punctuation, spelling, and handwriting (2 points)

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