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.SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
TỈNH QUẢNG NAM
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH THPT
NĂM HỌC 2023-2024 ĐỢT 2
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Có 12 trang)
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH 10 (CHUYÊN)
Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 15/3/2024
SECTION I: LISTENING (40 points)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
- Bài nghe gồm 3 phần (Mở đầu và kết thúc bằng tín hiệu nhạc).
- Mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 2 lần.
- Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh đã có trong bài nghe.
PART 1: You will hear a psychologist being interviewed about friendship. For questions 1-5, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet. (10 points)
1. From three to five years old, children __________
A. are happy to play alone. B. prefer to be with their family.
C. have rather selfish relationships. D. have little idea of ownership.
2. From age five to eight or ten, children __________
A. change their friends more often. B. decide who they want to be friends with.
C. admire people who don’t keep to rules. D. learn to be tolerant of their friends.
3. According to Sarah Browns, adolescents __________
A. may be closer to their friends than to their parents.
B. develop an interest in friends of the opposite sex.
C. choose friends with similar personalities to themselves.
D. want friends who are dependable.
4. Young married people often __________
A. tend to focus on their children. B. lose touch with their friends.
C. make fewer new friends. D. have fewer friends than single people.
5. In middle or old age people generally prefer__________
A. to stay in touch with old friends. B. to see younger friends more often.
C. to have friends who live nearby. D. to spend more time with their friends.
PART 2: You will hear a conversation between an interviewer and a Kenya runner, Kip Keino. For questions 6-10, answer the questions, using NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10 points)
6. How long have African runners dominated some running events?
@………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. Besides being home to Kip’s family, what does the farm act as?
@………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. According to Kip, what do abandoned kids need?
@………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. When are the children at the orphanage free to do as they like?
@………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. What is going to be built on the farm?
@………………………………………………………………………………………………
PART 3: Listen to the news about TV comedies and climate change and fill in the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet. (20 points)
One of the most outstanding episodes of the long running sitcom is “Mr. Plow” from the Simpsons’ 4th season. For the (11) _________, this 1992 episode involves Homer starting a successful snow plow business that is ultimately spoiled, first by friendly rivalry then by an unseasonably warm winter day. Indifference to climate change, however, can be observed in 41% of American population, which calls for (12) _________. Although scripted media, with programs ranging from embedded marketing to (13) _________, can substantially influence individuals’ points of view, only marginal amounts of its screen time is given to the issue of climate change. In addition to limited time on air, television comedy triggers the misconception of climate change as ‘non-existent’ by impeding action and treating activists as (14) _________. Featuring ‘bringing about warmer weather’ as climate change’s positive side was even considered as (15) _________ by most viewers, which repeatedly encouraged comedies to use such inappropriate framing with fixed (16) _________. Such disregard of climate change continued until the 2010s, when the media had become (17) _________ about the issue, yet further efforts were needed to raise awareness among the public. During the first decade of this century, the (18) _________ of characters, exemplified by their extravagant attitude to the environment, was a great source of humor. However, a (19) _________ is often given to the environmentalist characters before the episode ends, depicting them as ‘pseudo-environmentalist’ or ‘imperfect’. Thus, repeatedly watching comedies with such character archetype can result in (20) _________ about motives and general disinterest about learning more.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
SECTION II: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (50 points)
PART 1. For questions 21-40, write the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet. (20 points)
21. The contractor’s recommendation is that the old building ________.
A. need repairing B. need to repair
C. needs to be repaired D. is needed repairing
22. On the island ________ the only representative of the Indian’s handicraft.
A. does it remain B. did it remain C. remains it D. remains
23. It’s a serious operation for a woman as old as my grandmother. She’s very frail. I hope she will _______.
A. get on B. wind up C. pull through D. stand up
24. I must ________ my Spanish before I go to Seville.
A. make up for B. cut out for C. break out of D. brush up on
25. Serena is still ________ ignorant of the fact that she is about to be made redundant.
A. delightedly B. blissfully C. jubilantly D. ecstatically
26. ________ the increasing depletion of the Earth resources, it’s vital to recycle on a wider scale than we do at present.
A. Given B. In spite of C. Irrespective of D. Providing
27. Lucy was ________ when she saw her boyfriend go out with another girl.
A. blue in the face B. green with envy
C. tickled pink D. had a yellow streak
28. After the hurricane, all that was left of our house was a pile of ________.
A. rabble B. rubble C. ramble D. rumble
29. From my viewpoint, the changes to the education system at primary level in our country has been to great ________.
A. influence B. outcome C. impact D. effect
30. The bread oven can produce a ________ of 200 loaves every hour.
A. platoon B. pile C. stack D. batch
31. Tom is as stubborn as a ________. Nothing you can say will stop him!
A. donkey B. giraffe C. mule D. horse
32. We had no idea which hotel would be best, so we just ________ the first one on the list.
A. run a stroke of luck B. got a better luck
C. were down on your luck D. took pot luck
33. John first dabbled ________ buying old maps for his collection.
A. in B. on C. at D. for
34. I do wish you would stop cracking your fingers; it ________ my teeth on edge.
A. gets B. makes C. puts D. sets
35. One way to let off ________ after a stressful day is to take some vigorous exercise.
A. cloud B. tension C. steam D. sweat
36. My younger brother has applied for a(n) ________ lot of jobs but he’s only been short- listed once.
A. awful B. dreadful C. enormous D. wide
37. With his ________ appetite, he can surely finish the whole pot of rice.
A. meticulous B. scrupulous C. sumptuous D. voracious
38. The police asked one patient to give a ________ description of all the places that she had visited in 14 days.
A. blow-by-blow B. word-for-word C. up and down D. in and out
39. Nam and Long have ________ school today to watch the match at the stadium.
A. sponged off B. stamped out C. sneaked out D. skived off
40. The students plan for a musical show to raise money for charity received ________ support from the school administrators.
A. light-hearted B. warm-hearted C. whole-hearted D. big-hearted
PART 2: For questions 41 -50, use the capital word in bold given to form a word that fits in the gap. There is an example that has been done for you. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet. (20 points)

Example:
0. Scientists are becoming increasingly concerned about the effects of global warming on our life.
INCREASE
41. The jury must be objective and _________ at all times.
42. Thanks to the ________ policy, more and more forests have been formed on locations that used to be treeless.
43. Before enrolling on a course, you should first ensure that it has been _________ by an officially recognized body.
44. I know it’s a bit annoying but there’s no need to _______ to such an extent.
45. The boy was very violent and his parents found him _________.
46. Politeness is one thing. Real kindness is another. You must learn to ______ between the two.
47. For some people the use of internet has become ________ addictive to the extent that is threatening their mental and physical health.
48. Officials are worried that allowing these refugees into the country will open the _________ to thousands more.
49. They couldn’t play because the pitch was ________.
50. His ________ towards other people made him very unpopular.
PART
FOREST
VALID
ACT
MANAGE
DIFFERENT
RESIST
FLOOD
WATER
CIVIL
PART 3: For questions 51-60, complete each of the following sentences with one appropriate preposition or particle. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet. (10 points.)
51. We’d expected a two-hour drive but had reckoned ________ the rain.
52. In the TV interview, they blacked ________ the victim’s face.
53. I don’t think I managed to put myself ________ very well in my interview.
54. The hunt chased the fox until it was too tired and weak to run then closed ________ for the kill.
55. He scolded her so much that she was reduced _______ tears by the end of the meeting.
56. He has to visit them ________ the sly.
57. I heard ________ the grapevine that Jack had been dropped from the basketball team.
58. ________ all her faults I still love her.
59. The political candidate knew the issue was a hot potato, so he deferred ________ his chief of staff, who directed questions to the committee chairperson.
60. Dont let my mother watch any of those sad movies. She cries ________ the drop of a hat.
SECTION III: READING (60 points)
PART 1. For questions 61 – 70, read the passage below and then choose which option (A, B, C or D) best fits each space. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet. (15 points)
The Beauty of the Beasts
The earliest known drawings, which survive in the in the depths of caves in Western Europe, date back about 30,000 years. The fact that some people (61) ______along underground passages in (62) ______ darkness to create them is evidence that producing such pictures was an (63) ______ of great importance to these artists.
But what was their (64) ______? Perhaps drawing was an essential part of the ceremonials enacted to bring success in hunting. Perhaps the paintings were intended not to (65) ______ the death of the creatures portrayed but, (66) _______, to ensure their fertility, and thus a good supply of meat. The only certainty is that these drawings are assured, (67) ________ and breathtakingly beautiful.
This practice of painting images of animals on walls has continued throughout our history. Five thousand years ago, when people in Egypt began to build the worlds first cities, they too (68) _______ animals on their walls. There is no doubt about the function of these: the Egyptians worshipped animals as gods. But they also (69) _______ in the natural beauty of the animals, adorning the walls of their underground tombs with their pictures, so those in the next world would be (70) ______ of the beauties and delights of this one.
61. A. wriggled B. crawled C. dawdled D. proceeded
62. A. whole B. entire C. full D. total
63. A. act B. exploit C. operation D. execution
64. A. profit B. principle C. purpose D. procedure
65. A. take in B. bring about C. put across D. make off
66. A. in contrast B. on the contrary C. not at all D. out of hand
67. A. right B. correct C. accurate D. true
68. A. retrieved B. recuperated C. inscribed D. disparaged
69. A. delighted B. ascribed C. engendered D. concurred
70. A. reminisced B. reminded C. notified D. comprised
PART 2: For questions 71-80, read the passage and fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet. (15 points)
Nowadays the most common balloon flights are usually for pleasure or sport, but did you know that ballooning began (71) ________ a science in the 18th century?
It all started in 1783, when the Montgolfier brothers were looking (72) ________ the properties of smoke. What caught their attention was the fact that (73) ________ could make things rise. They experimented for a year or (74) _______ before they were ready to show their invention to everyone. On their first attempt, they (75) ________ a silk bag with hot air from a fire. The balloon rose more than 1.5 km into the (76) ________. Five months later, in November 1783, history was made once more when the first flight (77) ________ passengers left the ground. The volunteers took off from Paris and remained in the air for over twenty minutes.
Soon afterwards, scientists all over Europe became interested in the potential of ballooning, and it wasnt long before the activity became very popular. Lots of enthusiastic fans also experimented with ballooning and (78) ________ to its development. In the 19th century, gas balloons were used for many different purposes, the most important one (79) ________ polar exploration.
In the twentieth century, hot-air ballooning was re-introduced, due to a much improved propane burner. This has been responsible for a whole new generation becoming interested in (80) _______ either for scientific or sporting reasons.
PART 3: Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 81 to 90. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes on the answer sheet. (15 points)
About 100 different antibiotics are currently available commercially in the United States. These antibiotics block the life cycle of bacteria that invade the human body. The first of these antibiotics, penicillin, works by blocking the molecules that construct the cell walls of particular bacteria. The bacteria, with incomplete cell walls, are not able to reproduce - in fact, they usually just explode as the rest of the cell goes about the process of mitosis.
When penicillin was introduced during World War II, it was truly a “miracle drug”. Until that time, anyone who was cut or wounded stood a great risk of bacterial infection. Once penicillin became available, the situation changed. Not only wounded soldiers, but also children with ear infections, old people with pneumonia, and many others began to benefit from the ability to introduce molecules into the body that would block the growth of bacteria.
While humanity may have won that particular battle against bacteria, the war is far from over. The reason is that in any bacterial population, there are bound to be a few bacteria that, for one reason or another, are not affected by a particular antibiotic. For example, they may have a slightly differently shaped enzyme that builds cell walls, so that penicillin will not fit onto that particular shape of the enzyme. These bacteria will not be affected by that particular drug.
In fact, for that small group of resistant bacteria, the introduction of the antibiotic is a real godsend. It doesnt affect them, but it does wipe out all of their competition. They are thus free to multiply, and, over time, all of the bacteria will have whatever properties that made those individuals resistant.
Traditionally, medical scientists have dealt with this phenomenon by developing a large number of antibiotics, each of which intervenes in the bacterial life cycle in a slightly different way. Consequently, if you happen to have a bacterium that is resistant to one antibiotic, probably it will succumb to the action of another. You may, in fact, have had the experience of going to a doctor with an infection, being given an antibiotic, and then finding that it didnt work. In all likelihood, all your doctor had to do then was prescribe a different antibiotic and everything was fine.
The problem is that as time has passed, more and more bacteria have become resistant to more and more antibiotics. In fact, as of this writing, there is one strain of bacteria - a common hospital Staphylococcus - that is resistant to every commercially available antibiotic except one, and in 1996, a bacterium with lowered resistance to that last antibiotic appeared in Japan.
The appearance of drug-resistant bacteria is not particularly surprising; in fact, it probably should have been anticipated. [A] Nevertheless, in the late 1980s, there was a general sense of complacency among scientists on the antibiotic question. Little profit was to be made by developing the one-hundred-and-first antibiotic. [B] Drug companies concentrated their efforts on what seemed to be more useful and profitable areas. Because of this situation, a gap developed between the production of new antibiotics and the development of resistance among bacteria.
By the early 1990s, this gap was recognized - in fact, the problem was highlighted in several national news magazines. [C] More companies returned to the task of developing new kinds of antibiotics, and as this book is being prepared, a number are undergoing clinical trials. [D] By early in the twenty-first century, some of these new drugs will start to come on the market, and the problem will be “solved”, at least for the moment. There may, however, be a gap in the early 2000s when it is quite possible that the old scourge of bacterial infection will once again threaten humanity.
Much current research and funding is being devoted to genetic diseases, which arise from one or more malfunctioning genes. A promising future technology, gene therapy involves replacing a defective gene with a healthy one. Additional research will focus on the processes by which cells repair the constant damage to DNA, but the computer design of new drugs, the development of new antibiotics, and techniques to combat bacteria should remain a top priority.

8l. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of this passage?
A. The miracle drug penicillin B. Drug-resistant bacteria
C. Staphylococcus infections D. Gene therapy treatments
82. How do antibiotics treat infections?
A. They interfere with the reproductive cycle of bacteria.
B. They construct cell walls to resist bacteria.
C. They inject enzymes that explode in affected cells.
D. They increase the mitosis of healthy cells.
83. The word them in the passage refers to ________.
A. whatever properties B. resistant bacteria
C. their competition D. those individuals
84. The word anticipated in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. predicted B. concealed C. investigated D. disregarded
85. The word complacency in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. consensus of agreement B. fear of consequences
C. lack of concern D. awareness of potential
86. According to paragraph 4, why do some bacteria benefit from antibiotics?
A. The antibiotic eliminates competing bacteria, allowing resistant bacteria to reproduce.
B. The resistant bacteria compete with the antibiotic, and the bacteria becomes stronger.
C. The competition helps the resistant bacteria to multiply by reproducing with the resistant type.
D. The properties of the antibiotic are acquired by the bacteria, making it resistant to the competition.
87. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the highlighted statement in the passage?
A. Some antibiotics affect a population of bacteria more efficiently than others.
B. There are several reasons why some bacteria do not respond to most antibiotics.
C. The effect of antibiotics on bacteria is to bind them together into one population.
D. A small number of bacteria in any sample will probably be resistant to a specific antibiotic.
88. The author mentions all of the following reasons for drug resistant bacteria to appear
EXCEPT _______.
A. there was not enough profit incentive for companies to continue developing new antibiotics
B. statistically, some drug-resistant bacteria will occur naturally in any large population of bacteria
C. newer antibiotics were not as strong and effective as the original penicillin-based drugs
D. competing bacteria are destroyed by antibiotics, allowing resistant bacteria to prosper
89. It can be inferred from the passage that ________.
A. research to develop new antibiotics will not be necessary in the future
B. the scientific community was not surprised by the resistant strains of bacteria
C. antibiotics are not very expensive when they are made available commercially
D. it takes years for a new drug to be made available commercially for consumers
90. Four squares [A], [B], [C] and [D] indicate where the following sentence can be added to passage.
There was a clear pattern of resistance in previously effective antibiotics that should have alerted the scientific community to the problem.
Where would the sentence best fit into the passage?
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
PART 4. The following reading passage has 7 paragraphs (A-F). Read the passage and answer the questions 91-100. (15 points)
For questions 91-95, choose the correct heading for paragraphs A, C-E and H, from the list of headings below. Write the correct number, i-xi, in boxes 91-95 on your answer sheet.
0 is an example.

List of Headings
i Scientists’ call for a revision of policy
ii An explanation for reduced water use
iii How a global challenge was met
iv Irrigation systems fall into disuse
v Environmental effects
vi The financial cost of recent technological improvements
vii The relevance to health
viii Addressing the concern over increasing populations
ix A surprising downward trend in demand for water
x The need to raise standards
xi A description of ancient water supplies
Example
0. Paragraph B Answer: iii
91. Paragraph A
92. Paragraph C
93. Paragraph D
94. Paragraph E
95. Paragraph H
A The history of human civilisation is entwined with the history of the ways we have learned to manipulate water resources. As towns gradually expanded, water was brought from increasingly remote sources, leading to sophisticated engineering efforts such as dams and aqueducts. At the height of the Roman Empire, nine major systems, with an innovative layout of pipes and well-built sewers, supplied the occupants of Rome with as much water per person as is provided in many parts of the industrial world today.
B During the industrial revolution and population explosion of the 19th and 20th centuries, the demand for water rose dramatically. Unprecedented construction of tens of thousands of monumental engineering projects designed to control floods, protect clean water supplies, and provide water for irrigation and hydropower brought great benefits to hundreds of millions of people. Food production has kept pace with soaring populations mainly because of the expansion of artificial irrigation systems that make possible the growth of 40 % of the worlds food. Nearly one fifth of all the electricity generated worldwide is produced by turbines spun by the power of falling water.
C Yet there is a dark side to this picture: despite our progress, half of the worlds population still suffers, with water services inferior to those available to the ancient Greeks and Romans. As the United Nations report on access to water reiterated in November 2001, more than one billion people lack access to clean drinking water; some two and a half billion do not have adequate sanitation services. Preventable water-related diseases kill an estimated 10,000 to 20,000 children every day, and the latest evidence suggests that we are falling behind in efforts to solve these problems.
D The consequences of our water policies extend beyond jeopardising human health. Tens of millions of people have been forced to move from their homes - often with little warning or compensation - to make way for the reservoirs behind dams. More than 20 % of all freshwater fish species are now threatened or endangered because dams and water withdrawals have destroyed the free-flowing river ecosystems where they thrive. Certain irrigation practices degrade soil quality and reduce agricultural productivity. Groundwater aquifers are being pumped down faster than they are naturally replenished in parts of India, China, the USA and elsewhere. And disputes over shared water resources have led to violence and continue to raise local, national and even international tensions.
E At the outset of the new millennium, however, the way resource planners think about water is beginning to change. The focus is slowly shifting back to the provision of basic human and environmental needs as top priority - ensuring ‘some for all,’ instead of ‘more for some’. Some water experts are now demanding that existing infrastructure be used in smarter ways rather than building new facilities, which is increasingly considered the option of last, not first, resort. This shift in philosophy has not been universally accepted, and it comes with strong opposition from some established water organisations. Nevertheless, it may be the only way to address successfully the pressing problems of providing everyone with clean water to drink, adequate water to grow food and a life free from preventable water-related illness.
F Fortunately - and unexpectedly - the demand for water is not rising as rapidly as some predicted. As a result, the pressure to build new water infrastructures has diminished over the past two decades. Although population, industrial output and economic productivity have continued to soar in developed nations, the rate at which people withdraw water from aquifers, rivers and lakes has slowed. And in a few parts of the world, demand has actually fallen.
G What explains this remarkable turn of events? Two factors: people have figured out how to use water more efficiently, and communities are rethinking their priorities for water use. Throughout the first three-quarters of the 20th century, the quantity of freshwater consumed per person doubled on average; in the USA, water withdrawals increased tenfold while the population quadrupled. But since 1980, the amount of water consumed per person has actually decreased, thanks to a range of new technologies that help to conserve water in homes and industry. In 1965, for instance, Japan used approximately 13 million gallons of water to produce $1 million of commercial output; by 1989 this had dropped to 3.5 million gallons (even accounting for inflation) - almost a quadrupling of water productivity. In the USA, water withdrawals have fallen by more than 20 % from their peak in 1980.
H On the other hand, dams, aqueducts and other kinds of infrastructure will still have to be built, particularly in developing countries where basic human needs have not been met. But such projects must be built to higher specifications and with more accountability to local people and their environment than in the past. And even in regions where new projects seem warranted, we must find ways to meet demands with fewer resources, respecting ecological criteria and to a smaller budget.
Questions 96-100
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the reading passage?
In boxes 96-100 on your answer sheet, write
YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
96. Water use per person is higher in the industrial world than it was in Ancient Rome.
97. Feeding increasing populations is possible due primarily to improved irrigation systems.
98. Modern water systems imitate those of the ancient Greeks and Romans.
99. Industrial growth is increasing the overall demand for water.
100. Modern technologies have led to a reduction in domestic water consumption.
SECTION IV: WRITING (50 points)
PART 1: Read the following passage and use your own words to summarise it. Your summary should be about 140 words long. (20 points)
Green cities are urban areas that prioritize sustainability, environmental conservation, and the well-being of residents. These cities implement a variety of strategies to minimize their ecological footprint and promote a healthier living environment. One key aspect of green cities is sustainable transportation infrastructure. This includes investing in public transportation systems such as buses, trams, and trains to reduce reliance on private vehicles and decrease traffic congestion and air pollution. Additionally, green cities prioritize non-motorized modes of transportation such as walking and cycling by creating pedestrian-friendly streets, bike lanes, and greenways.
Another crucial element of green cities is sustainable urban planning and design. This involves the development of compact, mixed-use neighborhoods that reduce the need for long commutes and promote walkability and community interaction. Green building practices are also emphasized, with the construction of energy-efficient, eco-friendly buildings that minimize energy and water consumption and utilize renewable materials. Urban green spaces play a vital role in green cities, providing residents with access to nature, improving air quality, and mitigating the urban heat island effect. Parks, green roofs, community gardens, and urban forests are integrated into the urban fabric to enhance biodiversity and create recreational opportunities.
Waste management is another key aspect of green cities, with a focus on reducing, reusing, and recycling materials to minimize landfill waste and promote a circular economy. Sustainable water management practices, such as rainwater harvesting and wastewater recycling, are also implemented to conserve water resources and reduce pollution. Moreover, green cities prioritize environmental education and community engagement to raise awareness about sustainability issues and encourage participation in green initiatives.
By implementing these strategies, green cities strive to create healthier, more resilient, and environmentally friendly urban environments that improve the quality of life for residents now and in the future.
PART 2: Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic. (30 points)
Nowadays, many people believe that school leavers should choose to do vocational courses rather than go to university to study academic subjects.
To what extent do you agree or disagree?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
------------THE END------------
.SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
TỈNH QUẢNG NAM
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH THPT
NĂM HỌC 2023-2024 ĐỢT 2
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Có 04 trang)
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH 10 (CHUYÊN)
Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: 15/3/2024
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
SECTION I: LISTENING (40 pts.)
PART 1: (5 x 2 = 10 points)
1. C
2. B
3. D
4. C
5. A
PART 2: (5 x 2 = 10 points)
6. (for) 25 years/ a quarter of a century
7. Shelter/ Refuge/ Accommodation for orphans/ (An) orphanage.
8. Education, father(s), (and) mother(s)/ Education, (and) parents.
9. After/ When (finishing/ having finished) high school.
After/When They finish/ They’ve finished high school.
10. (A) primary school/ a school for young children
PART 3: (10 x 2 = 20 points)
11. uninitiated
12. collective climate action
13. “very special episodes”
14. scam artists
15. benign
16. set-up and punchline
17. much less glib
18. perceived obnoxiousness
19. comeuppance
20. skepticism
SECTION II: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (50 points)
PART 1. (20 x 1= 20 points)

21. A
22. D
23. C
24. D
25. B
26. A
27. B
28. B
29. D
30. D
31. C
32. D
33. A
34. D
35. C
36. A
37. D
38. A
39. D
40. C
PART 2: (10 x 2= 20 points)
41. impartial
42. afforestation
43. validated
44. overreact
45. unmanageable
46. differentiate
47. irresistibly
48. floodgates
49. waterlogged
50. incivility
PART 3: (10 x 1= 10 points)
51. without
52. out
53. across
54. in
55. to
56. on
57. on/through
58. for
59. to
60. at
SECTION III: READING (60 points)
PART 1. (10 x 1,5= 15 points)
61. B
62. D
63. A
64. C
65. B
66. B
67. C
68. C
69. A
70. B
PART 2: (10 x 1,5= 15 points)
71. as
72. into
73. smoke/ it
74. so/ two
75. filled
76. sky/air
77. carrying
78. contributed
79. being
80. ballooning/ it
PART 3: (10 x 1,5= 15 points)
81. B
82. A
83. B
84. A
85. C
86. A
87. D
88. C
89. D
90. A
PART 4.
0. iii
91. xi
92. vii
93. v
94. i
95. x
96. NO
97. YES
98. NOT GIVEN
99. NO
100. YES
SECTION IV: WRITING (50 points)
PART 1: Read the following passage and use your own words to summarise it. Your summary should be about 140 words long. (20 points)
The Summary MUST cover the following points:
Topic sentence: Green cities take priority over sustainability, environmental conservation, and resident well-being.
- Green cities focus on sustainable transportation infrastructure.
- Green cities emphasize sustainable urban planning, green building practices, urban green spaces, waste management, and water management to create healthier, more resilient, and environmentally friendly urban environments.
- The summary MUST NOT contain personal opinions.
Language use (5 points)
The summary should:
* show attempts to convey the main ideas of the original text by means of paraphrasing (structural and lexical use)
* demonstrate correct use of grammatical structures, vocabulary, and mechanics (spelling, punctuations, ...)
* maintain coherence, cohesion, and unity throughout (by means of linkers and transitional devices)
Penalties
* A penalty of 1 point to 2 points will be given to personal opinions found in the summary.
* A penalty of 1 point to 2 points will be given to any summary with more than 30% of words copied from the original.
* A penalty of 1 point will be given to any summary longer than 155 words or shorter than 120 words.
PART 2: Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic. (30 points)
Nowadays, many people believe that school leavers should choose to do vocational courses rather than go to university to study academic study.
To what extent do you agree or disagree?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
The mark given to part 2 is based on the following criteria:
1. Task achievement/ fulfillment (10 points)
a. All requirements of the task are sufficiently addressed.
b. Ideas are adequately supported and elaborated with relevant and reliable explanations, examples, evidence, personal experience, etc.
2. Organization (10 points)
a. Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and unity.
b. The essay is well-structured:
* Introduction is presented with a clear thesis statement introducing the points to be developed.
* Body paragraphs develop the points introduced with unity, coherence, and cohesion. Each body paragraph must have a topic sentence and supporting details and examples when necessary.
* Conclusion summarises the main points and states personal opinions (prediction, recommendation, consideration,…) on the issue.
3. Language use (5 points)
a. Demonstration of a variety of topic-related vocabulary
b. Excellent use and control of grammatical structures
4. Punctuation, spelling, and handwriting (5 points)
a. Correct punctuation and no spelling mistakes
b. Legible handwriting

Markers should discuss the suggested answers and the marking scale thoroughly before marking the papers.
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