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TỈNH QUẢNG NAM
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề gồm có 08 trang)
KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10
THPT CHUYÊN VÀ PTDTNT TỈNH
NĂM HỌC 2024 - 2025
Môn thi: Tiếng Anh (chuyên)
Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Khóa thi ngày: 04-06/6/2024
Học sinh làm bài trên tờ ANSWER SHEET
SECTION ONE: LISTENING (2.0 pts)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
* Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần.
* Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.
* Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
PART 1. For questions 1-5, you will hear a high school student interviewing a doctor as part of his research for a project on sleep. Choose the best answer A, B, or C. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (0.5 pts)
1. People in the past used to sleep on average .
A. 7.5 hours per night
B. 8 hours per night
C. 9 hours per night
2. Research has already shown that a lack of sleep can affect teenagers .
A. long-term health
B. performance at school
C. emotional well-being
3. What does the doctor say is to blame for teenagers not getting enough sleep?
A. poor diet
B. lack of exercise
C. lack of discipline at home
4. What advice does the doctor give to teenagers who have trouble getting to sleep?
A. read a favourite book
B. listen to music
C. drink hot chocolate
5. What does the doctor recommend schools should do?
A. shorten the school day
B. offer classes in the evenings
C. start lessons later
PART 2. For questions 6-10, listen to an extract from a radio programme about climber Annabelle Bond and decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (0.5 pts)
6. It took Annabelle Bond about a year to climb the seven mountains.
7. Only four people have climbed the peaks faster than Annabelle.
8. Annabelle came to Europe to attend boarding school in 1977.
9. She raised £8,500 for a cancer charity.
10. She plans to do more climbing in the near future.
PART 3. For questions 11-20, you will hear part of a student’s presentation about the variety of different species living in the world ocean and complete the sentences by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. (1.0 pt)
OCEAN BIODIVERSITY
Biodiversity hotspots
* areas containing many different species
* important for locating targets for conservation
* at first only identified on (11)
Boris Worm, 2005
* identified hotspots for large ocean (12)
* found that ocean hotspots:
were not always rich in food had (13) at the surface
had sufficient oxygen in the water
Lisa Ballance, 2007
* looked for hotspots for (14)
* found these were all located where (15) meet
Census of Marine Life
* found new ocean species living:
under the (16)
near (17) on the ocean floor
Global Marine Species Assessment
* want to list endangered ocean species, considering: population (18)
geographical distribution rate of declining
* Aim: to assess (19) species and make a distribution (20) for each one
SECTION TWO: LEXICO - GRAMMAR - COMMUNICATION (3.0 pts)
PART 1. For questions 21-36, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to each of the following questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (1,6 pts)
21. John will start revising for the tomorrow exam .
A. before he finished his lunch B. until he is finishing his lunch
C. when he finishes his lunch D. after he finished his lunch
22. The shepherd up the hill for half an hour when he realized he in the direction of the castle.
A. was walking / hasn’t been going B. had been walking / wasn’t going
C. have been walking / didn’t go D. had walked / wouldn’t be going
23. Not until a student has mastered algebra the principles of geometry, trigonometry, and physics.
A. he can begin to understand B. can he begin to understand
C. he begins to understand D. that he can begin to understand
24. Physical exercise can do good to those from anxiety and pressure of work.
A. suffering B. are suffering C. suffered D. are suffered
25. The water company will have to off the water supplies while repairs to the pipes are carried out.
A. go B. cut C. take D. bring
26. K-pop superstar Rose has joined U.S. first lady Jill Biden at a mental health event to talk about how even famous people emotional struggles.
A. ward off B. grapple with C. patch up D. blurt out
27. My elder brother found it impossible to his anger and started shouting.
A. restrict B. inhibit C. reserve D. contain
28. This summer isn’t as hot as last summer.
A. almost B. nearly C. closely D. just
29. She till the early hours listening to pop music.
A. took me up B. caught me up C. kept me up D. held me up
30. The young swimmer came within a(n) of winning but failed in the end.
A. ace B. nick C. crack D. trump
31. I tried to talk to Vivian, the newcomer, but she was .
A. as high as a kite B. as high as a house
C. as high as a sky D. as high as a wall
32. Ann and John are talking about bad habits of teenagers.
* Ann: Teenagers shouldn’t stay up late to play computer games.”
* John: “ . It’s harmful to their health.”
A. Its rubbish B. I can’t agree with you any more
C. I dont agree with you D. Yes, I share your opinion
Choose the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
33. Many young couple got divorced after they realized that they were not compatible.
A. able to share an apartment or house B. able to budget their money
C. capable of having children D. capable of living harmoniously
34. She was like a cat on hot bricks before her driving test.
A. nervous B. comfortable C. depressed D. enjoyable
Choose the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
35. My teacher tried to bolster my confidence by saying that I had an aptitude for English.
A. reinforce B. discourage C. clarify D. represent
36. Julie’s slimming attempts have been going by fits and starts. She needs to do it consistently.
A. slowly B. poorly C. steadily D. flexibly
PART 2. For questions 37-44, use the word given in every bracket to form a word that fits in the same numbered space in the text. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (0,8 pts)
THE ORIGINS OF HALLOWEEN
Halloween is celebrated in many parts of the (0) (WEST) world, and is a time when people dress up as witches or ghosts, and go “trick-or-treating”. It is (37) (DOUBT) one of the most popular traditions in the United States and Britain.
The celebration (38) (ORIGIN) about two thousand years ago with the Celts. These people were the inhabitants of an area that includes Britain, Ireland and Brittany. They
relied on the land for their (39) (LIVE), and this meant that they were at the mercy of
(40) (PREDICT) weather conditions, especially during the winter.
The Celtic new year began on November 1st, which also marked the beginning of winter, a period (41) (TRADITION) associated with death. On the eve of the new year, it was believed that the barriers between the worlds of the living and the dead were temporarily (42)
(DRAW), and it was possible to communicate with spirits. The Celts believed that the spirits offered them (43) (GUIDE) and protection, and the Druids (Celtic priests) were reputably able to predict the future on this point.
When the Roman completed their (44) (CONQUER) of Celtic lands, they added their own flavour to this festival. The advent of Christianity brought about other changes.
PART 3. For questions 45-50, read the following passage. There are SIX mistakes in the passage. Find the words that need correction and correct them. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (0,6 pts)
Line
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
EDUCATION IN THE USA
It was the state of Massachusetts that first introduced compel education in the USA, but by the year 1918, children in every state had to attend school. School starting age, the length of the school year and another requirements varied depending on the particular state laws governing school attendance. They were two basic reasons for the introduction of education for all at this time. The policy was publicised as a reduction of the common practice of child labour, but in addition to this was a desire by the countrys leaders to ensure the transformation of children into economically productive citizens. During that time, education has increasingly come to be seen as a means of occupying children so as to prevent their involvement in crime and other social activities. To make sure this last aim
was achieved, laws were introduced to make the getting out of school unlawful.
SECTION THREE: READING (2.5 pts)
PART 1. For questions 51-60, read the passage below and decide which answer A, B, C, or D best fits each numbered gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (1.0 pt)
As petrol prices continue to escalate, many people are looking for ways to reduce the
(51) of higher prices while still doing the driving necessary to their work and other activities. (52) are some suggestions which will save you a (53) amount of money on petrol.
1. Ask yourself every time you (54) to use your car, truck, SUV, or van, Is this trip really necessary? Every mile you drive your vehicle will cost you at least an (55) of 36 cents. If the trip is not necessary, think twice before using your vehicle.
2. Drive at a (56) speed on the motorway. According to the Department of Energy, most automobiles get about 20 percent more miles per gallon on the motorway at 55 miles per hour than they (57) at 70 miles per hour.
3. Consider (58) an automobile which gets the best petrol mileage. For example, generally, the following get better petrol mileage: lighter weight vehicles, vehicles with smaller
engines, vehicles with manual transmissions, those with four cylinders, and those with fewer accessories. Check the fuel economy labels (59) to the windows of new automobiles to find the average estimated miles per gallon for given makes and models.
4. Decrease the number of short trips you make. Short trips (60) reduce petrol mileage. If an automobile gets 20 miles per gallon in general, it may get only 4 miles per gallon on a short trip of 5 miles or less.
51. A. danger
B. occurrence
C. burden
D. chance
52. A. Below
B. After
C. Coming
D. Later
53. A. measurable
B. negotiable
C. negligible
D. considerable
54. A. think
B. plan
C. need
D. arrange
55. A. equivalent
B. average
C. amount
D. increase
56. A. mild
B. conservative
C. considerate
D. substantial
57. A. do
B. make
C. take
D. have
58. A. inquiring
B. trading
C. preferring
D. purchasing
59. A. attached
B. adjusted
C. stretched
D. held
60. A. extensively
B. exclusively
C. intensively
D. drastically
PART 2. For questions 61-67, read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D to each of the following questions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (0.7 pts)
Two billion tons of solid waste is generated globally per year, and as urban populations continue to grow, many cities are turning to new technologies for cost-effective solutions to clean up waste. “Cities that address waste problems immediately have the best chance to avoid severe long-term consequences,” says Ricardo Cepeda-Márquez, solid waste director for C40 Cities, a global network of cities committed to tackling climate change. Waste that goes uncollected can lead to blocked drains, severe flooding on the street and the spread of waterborne diseases. Additionally, organic matter dumped in landfills generates methane gas, accelerating climate change in the process.
Copenhagen, Denmark, recently opened its innovative waste-to-energy power plant, known as Copenhill or Amager Bakke. The plant, which burns waste instead of fossil fuels, is capable of converting 450,000 tons of trash into energy annually, delivering electricity to 30,000 households and heating to 72,000. Though it still produces CO2 emissions from burning, the city plans to install a system to capture the carbon released and then store this amount of carbon or find a commercial use for it. By tapping an otherwise unused resource, it will also help the city move away from its dependence on fossil fuels. Other cities are also experimenting with similar waste-to-energy plants, but it is warned that a city needs solid infrastructure and a strong waste collection system already in place before it can reap the benefits of one of these plants.
Other cities are starting on a street level, using artificial intelligence and automation to sort recyclables, or sensors to reduce the amount thrown away. For instance, Singapore and Seoul, South Korea, have installed smart, solar-powered trash cans on their streets. Each is equipped with a compactor, enabling it to hold more trash. Once the bin is full, its sensors alert the waste collectors.
Typically, cities send out different trucks to collect different types of waste - one truck collecting plastic for recycling, another collecting food waste, for example. However, that
requires a lot of trucks, which means added costs and more traffic. Norways capital Oslo has designed a clever model to circumvent this. Since 2012, city residents have been required to use different colored bags for different types of waste, and instead of collecting them separately, trucks gather all the bags at once and take them to an optical sorting plant. The green bags containing food waste and blue bags with plastic waste are separated from other waste by sophisticated optical reading technology, which detects the color of the bags with approximately 98% precision. The city claims that increased waste segregation and public awareness campaigns have had a positive effect, reducing the amount thrown away by each household and increasing the amount that is reused and recycled.
61. According to paragraph 1, all of the following are mentioned as problems caused by uncollected waste in cities EXCEPT .
A. drainage system being blocked B. more waste dumped into landfills
C. transmission of diseases via water D. serious street flooding
62. Which of the following is TRUE, according to paragraph 2?
A. Copenhill provides both electricity and heating to more than 30,000 households annually.
B. A city’s infrastructure must reach an adequate standard to benefit from waste-to-energy plants.
C. Thanks to Copenhill, Copenhagen has become completely independent from fossil fuels.
D. The CO2 emissions captured by Copenhagen’s system will also be turned into energy.
63. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. carbon B. city C. system D. plant
64. The word “circumvent” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to .
A. avoid B. tolerate C. adapt D. support
65. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The bigger the population of the city, the more cost-effective technologies it has.
B. Trash bins in Singapore and South Korea can automatically sort and collect trash.
C. Every city should build waste-to-energy plants like that in Denmark immediately.
D. Optical sorting plants will help reduce the number of garbage trucks on the street.
66. The word “segregation” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to .
A. circulation B. separation C. demolition D. distribution
67. What is the passage mainly about?
A. Waste management measures in European cities.
B. The negative impacts of poor waste management.
C. What cities around the world are doing to manage waste.
D. The global network of cities trying to solve climate change.
PART 3. For questions 68-75, read the passage below and fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. There is an example at the beginning (0): [0. with ] (0.8 pts)
The elementary means of communicating (0) other people is conveying messages by voice. This fact is widely acknowledged and we recognize the voice as a feature characterizing the identity of a person. The array of voices is immeasurable as (68) two are exactly similar. They can be nasal, resonant or shrill produced in (69) with the individual physical properties of the throat.
One possible implementation of the art of voice recognition is voice profiling used by police analysts (70) a method of substantiating court evidence in trials. Every year thousands of audiotapes with recorded interviews or casual utterances are (71) to the purpose to help identify the probable culprit. Specialists dealing with the voice investigation claim that people can give themselves (72) by their accents, infections or other voice attributes like pitch, intensity and loudness. A recorded sample is usually converted (73)
electric impulses and later transformed into a pictorial recording which is processed by a computer program. Very frequently voice analysts have a stake at deciphering the relevant information which may be mingled with background noise or other interfering sounds (74)
they attain the desired results.
Thankfully, these efforts help the police detect individuals who threaten their victim by phone or inform about bomb planting or those (75) make offensive calls disturbing the peace of decent citizens.
SECTION FOUR: WRITING (2.5 pts)
PART 1. For questions 76-80, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the sentence printed before it, beginning with the given word(s). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered spaces provided. (0) has been done as an example. (0.5 pts)
0. I walked to school in 20 minutes.
 It took me 20 minutes to walk to school.
76. “Why didn’t they inform me about the changes of the project earlier?” Julia said
 Julia said she should .
77. I’m sure he took your briefcase by mistake.
 I’m sure he didn’t take .
78. Steve only took over the family business because his father had retired early.
 Had it .
79. Happiness is elusive to rich and poor alike.
 Whether .
80. She really wanted someone to buy her that necklace for her birthday.
 She had set .
PART 2. For questions 81-85, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in capital. DO NOT CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN. You must use between THREE and SIX words, including the word given. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered spaces provided. (0) has been done as an example. (0.5 pts)
0. I haven’t seen my brother since he left for Australia. (LAST)
The last time I saw my brother was when he left for Australia.
81. Parents who have overweight children should be given special help. (WHOSE)
 Parents should be given special help.
82. The success of the local theatre has made our city famous. (MAP)
 The success of the local theatre has .
83. My siblings and I get on together very well. (TERMS)
 I my siblings.
84. The result of the final exam was not as good as Jim had hoped. (EXPECTATIONS)
 The result of the final exam didn’t .
85. I find it hard not to laugh when my little niece is talking. (FACE)
 I find it hard when my little niece is talking.
PART 3. Essay writing (1.5 pts)
Classmates are a more important influence than parents on a child’s success in school.
To what extent do you agree or disagree?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge and experience. Your essay should be about 200 words.
Write your answers on the ANSWER SHEET.
THE END
* Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.
* Họ và tên thí sinh: …………………………… …….. Số báo danh: ……........
*
KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN, PTDTNT TỈNH NĂM HỌC 2024 - 2025
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Chuyên)
(Hướng dẫn chấm có 03 trang)
SECTION ONE: LISTENING (2.0 pts) (Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0.1 đ)
PART 1. Questions 1–5 (0.5 pts)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
C
B
C
A
C
PART 2. Questions 6–10 (0.5 pts)
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
T
F
T
F
F
PART 3. Questions 11–20 (1.0 pt)
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
land
predators
(relatively) high
temperatures
marine
mammals
ocean currents
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
ice
volcanoes
size
20,000
map
SECTION TWO: LEXICO - GRAMMAR – COMMUNICATION (3.0 pts)
(Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0.1 đ)
PART 1. Questions 21–36 (1.6 pts)
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
C
B
B
A
B
B
D
B
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
C
A
A
D
D
A
B
C
PART 2. Questions 37–44 (0.8 pts)
0.
37.
38.
39.
40.
western
undoubtedly
originated
livelihood
unpredictable
41.
42.
43.
44.
traditionally
withdrawn
guidance
conquest
PART 3. Questions 45–50 (0.6 pts)
Questions
Line
Mistake
Correction
0.
1
compel
compulsory
45.
3
another
other
46.
4
They
There
47.
6
(reduction) of
in
48.
8
During
Since
49.
10
social
antisocial
50.
11
getting
dropping
SECTION THREE: READING (2.5 pts) (Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0.1 đ)
PART 1. Questions 51–60 (1.0 pt)
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
C
A
D
B
B
B
A
D
A
D
PART 2. Questions 61–67 (0.7 pts)
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
B
D
D
A
D
B
C
PART 3. Questions 68–75 (0.8 pts)
0.
68.
69.
70.
71.
with
no
accordance
as
put
72.
73.
74.
75.
away
into
until/till
who
SECTION FOUR: WRITING (2.5 pts)
PART 1. Questions 76–80 (0.5 pts) (Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0.1 đ)

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I. Đọc hiểu (2,0 điểm)
Đọc đoạn thơ sau:
Lận đận đời bà biết mấy nắng mưa
I. ĐỌC HIỂU (2,0 điểm)
Đọc bài thơ sau:
THỜI GIAN
Câu 1. (5,0 điểm)
1.1. (3,0 điểm) Hình 1 thể hiện cấu trúc của các phân tử hữu cơ (I, II, III, IV).
a) Gọi tên mỗi phân tử (I), (II), (III), (IV) ở hình này.
75295315900Câu 1. (1,5 điểm)
Trình bày đặc điểm nguồn lao động của nước ta.
Câu 2. (2,5 điểm) Dựa vào Atlat Địa lí Việt Nam và kiến thức đã học:
272732588900 (Nguồn: Sách giáo khoa Lịch sử 9, NXB GDVN, 2022, tr.44)0 (Nguồn: Sách giáo khoa Lịch sử 9, NXB GDVN, 2022, tr.44)Câu 1. (3,0 điểm)
a. Quan sát hình ảnh và cho biết đây là quang cảnh của hội nghị nào? Nêu hoàn cảnh lịch sử, các quyết định quan trọng và hệ quả của các quyết định trong hội nghị đó.
b. Chiến tranh lạnh là gì? Những biểu hiện và hậu quả của tình trạng chiến tranh lạnh.
Câu 1. (2,0 điểm)
a) Không dùng máy tính cầm tay, tính giá trị của biểu thức
b) Cho biểu thức với . Rút gọn và tìm để .
Học sinh làm bài trên tờ ANSWER SHEET
SECTION ONE: LISTENING (2.0 pts)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU